Dairy Production and Management Quiz – Networking Funda

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Q1. Which of the following breeds is associated with the highest yields of milk?

  • Ayrshire
  • Brown Swiss
  • Guernsey
  • Holstein
  • J​ersey

Q2. Which of the following breeds are smaller with the highest milk-fat concentration?

  • A​yshire
  • B​rown Swiss
  • G​uernesey
  • H​olstein
  • J​ersey

Q3. Crossbreds?

  • Are a mix of two or more pure cattle breeds
  • Are the majority of cattle in the United States
  • Should never contain contributions from more than two breeds
  • Are limited by our inability to import semen from foreign breeds

Q4. If a bull has a PTA for milk of +100 pounds?

  • We expect his daughters to make 100 pounds of milk per year
  • We expect his daughters to make 100 pounds of milk per day
  • We expect his daughters to make 100 pounds more milk than a typical cow per year
  • We expect his daughters to make 100 pounds more milk than a typical cow per day

Q5. The data used to generate genetic evaluations for traits such as milk yield?

  • Are recorded about once per month on farms enrolled in milk testing programs
  • Are self-reported by farmers to the Council on Dairy Cattle Breeding
  • Are estimated based on how much feed a cow eats on a given day
  • Are only recorded for cows whose sons are enrolled in an artificial insemination program

Q6. Values for traits in $NM are derived by?

  • Estimating the expected economic outcome of changing a trait
  • Conducting an opinion poll to determine which traits breeders most want to change
  • Evaluating what traits have changed the least over the last half-century and increasing weight on those traits

Q7. The purpose of selection index is to?

  • Simplify the selection process
  • Help focus on the most economically important traits
  • Allow excellent performance in one trait offset poor performance in a second trait
  • All of the above

Q8. The genetic trend for fertility in cattle?

  • Is stable as we select for higher milk yield
  • Declines as a correlated response to selection for milk yield
  • Increases as a correlated response to selection for milk yield
  • Has declined and cannot be reversed if we do not reduce milk yield

Q9. Higher values for which of the following would SLOW the rate of genetic progress?

  • Accuracy
  • Selection intensity
  • Genetic variance
  • Generation interval

Q10. Genomic selection promises to help speed the rate of genetic progress because?

  • We will be able to increase genetic variance by finding the most important genes
  • We will have information on young bulls before they are sexually mature and thus decrease generation interval
  • We will substantially increase the accuracy of genetic evaluations for bulls that already have thousands of daughters

Q11. Genotyping technology is facilitated by testing?

  • About 100 SNPs (Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms)
  • About 100 SNPs (Specific, Narrow, Prediction sites)
  • Many thousands of SNPs (Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms)
  • Many thousands of SNPs (Specific, Narrow, Prediction sites)
  • Many thousands of INDELS (insertions/deletions)

Q12. Cloning?

  • Is the source of nearly all artificial insemination bulls
  • Has an unfavorable impact on generation interval
  • Promises to increase genetic diversity
  • Is not feasible in cattle at this time

Q13. Bull A has a PTA for productive life of +1. Bull B has a PTA for productive life of -2. We expect Bull A daughters?

  • To have 3 more calves than bull B daughters
  • To survive in the lactating herd 3 years longer than bull B daughters
  • To survive in the lactating herd 3 months longer than bull B daughters

Dairy Production and Management Week 02 Quiz Answers

Q1. Which of the following would not be considered a forage for dairy cows?

  • Barley grain
  • Sorghum silage
  • Ryegrass pasture
  • Corn silage
  • Alfalfa hay

Q2. Which of the following soil nutrients is important to monitor when growing small grain silages?

  • pH
  • Phosphorous
  • Potassium
  • Calcium
  • Zinc

Q3. Alfalfa is especially sensitive to which of the following soil properties?

  • Soil nitrogen
  • Stonieness
  • Soil phosphorus
  • Slope
  • Soil drainage

Q4. Compared to corn, sorghum

  • Needs more N fertilizer and does not have BMR versions
  • Needs more N fertilizer
  • Uses less water
  • Uses less water and needs more N fertilizer
  • Does not have BMR versions

Q5. Nutrient management is a term that refers to:

  • Planning to distribute manure and fertilizers to the fields where they are most needed
  • Understanding the vitamin needs of the cattle on the farm
  • Balancing the ration of the cows
  • Managing the energy levels of the forages to optimize production
  • Matching the minerals to the protein content of the forage

Q6. Corn silage is popular annual forage crop because

  • the high protein content of the forage
  • the consistent forage quality and high yields
  • its responds well to N fertilizer
  • it has a relatively low starch content
  • it grows well on poor soils

Q7. Brown mid rib hybrids are known for what characteristic?

  • High yield
  • High starch content
  • High fiber digestibility
  • High protein
  • Reduced feed intake

Q8. Which of the following tools helps the producer know how much corn to plant?

  • Soil test report
  • Nutrient management plan
  • Cropping plan
  • Feed inventory
  • Variety performance trials

Q9. Winter small grains often have a special niche in cropping systems because:

  • The forage quality is often not influenced by maturity
  • Yields are higher than most other forage crops
  • Another forage crop can be double cropped following harvest
  • They are often harvested in the winter
  • They usually have lower protein levels than corn silage

Q10. For most small seeded forages, try not to plant more than

  • 1 inch deep
  • 2 inches deep
  • 1/2 inches deep
  • 3/8 inches deep
  • 3/4 inches deep

Q11. What nutrient is most commonly deficient in pasture-based diets for lactating dairy cows?

  • Protein
  • Energy
  • Potassium
  • Vitamins

Q12. Which of the following is NOT a possible supplementation strategy for grazing dairy cows?

  • Concentrate (grain)
  • No supplement
  • Silage/Baleage
  • All of the above are potential supplementation strategies

Q13. All of the following are keys to a successful dairy grazing system EXCEPT:

  • High debt/cow
  • Pasture management
  • Amount of pasture allocated per cow
  • High-quality pasture forage

Q14. Where do pasture plants (cool-season grasses and legume) store energy reserves used for regrowth?

  • Bottom few inches of the plant
  • Roots
  • Seed Heads
  • Both bottom few inches of the plant and roots

Q15. Repeated overgrazing of pastures will result in all of the following EXCEPT:

  • Stunted plant growth
  • Decreased forage production
  • Improved milk production
  • Increased weed pressure

Dairy Production and Management Week 03 Quiz Answers

Q1. Corn silage is fed to dairy cows because it is a good source of:

  • Energy
  • Digestible fiber
  • Digestible starch
  • All of the above

Q2. Compared with fiber in alfalfa, rate of digestion of fiber in grasses is usually:

  • Faster
  • Slower
  • Not different

Q3. Alfalfa forage is included in dairy diets as a source of:

  • Available protein
  • Energy
  • Fat
  • Phosphorus

Q4. Dry matter content of a good quality small grain silage should be around:

  • 25
  • 35
  • 45
  • 55

Q5. Whole roasted soybeans are a good source of:

  • Energy
  • Fat
  • By-pass protein
  • All of the above

Q6. Compared with other cereal grains, corn grain is a good source of:

  • Protein
  • Calcium
  • Beta-carotenes
  • Fat

Q7. Compared with corn grain, barley grain has:

  • More fiber
  • More protein
  • Less energy
  • All of the above

Q8. Nutritionists are cautious feeding wheat grain to dairy cows because of:

  • It’s high starch degradablility
  • It’s low protein content
  • It’s high fiber content
  • It’s low calcium content

Q9. Soybean meal is valued as a protein source for dairy cows because it’s protein is:

  • Mostly degradable in the rumen
  • Mostly undegradable in the rumen
  • Mostly true protein
  • Mostly non-protein nitrogen

Q10. Compared with soybean meal, canola (or rapeseed) meal has:

  • More energy
  • More methionine
  • Less fiber
  • All of the above

Q11. By harvesting hay too wet, we risk:

  • High leaf losses
  • Losses due to heating
  • High fermentation losses
  • All of the above

Q12. We shouldn’t be making silage with dry matter content below:

  • 25%
  • 35%
  • 45%
  • 55%

Q13. Silage inoculants usually contain:

  • Proteolytic bacteria
  • Protozoa
  • Lipolytic bacteria
  • Lactic acid bacteria

Q14. Gelatinization of starch during processing of grain is facilitated by:

  • Heat
  • Moisture
  • Pressure
  • All of the above

Q15. Compared with solvent-extracted, extruded soybean meal has:

  • Higher fat
  • Higher rumen undegradable protein
  • Higher energy
  • All of the above

Dairy Production and Management Week 04 Quiz Answers

Q1. The main organ of the digestive tract of a dairy cow is:

  • The rumen
  • The omasum
  • The abomasum
  • The reticulum

Q2. Digestion of fiber in the rumen is carried out by:

  • Bacteria
  • Protozoa
  • Fungi
  • All of the above

Q3. Which of the following is the main source of energy for the dairy cow?

  • Glucose
  • Amino acids
  • Volatile fatty acids
  • Glycogen

Q4. Rumen acidosis is usually associated with:

  • Too much fiber in the diet
  • Too much fat in the diet
  • Too much protein in the diet
  • Too much starch in the diet

Q5. Which of these compounds can serve as a source of nitrogen for the rumen microbes?

  • Amino acids
  • Peptides
  • Ammonia
  • All of the above

Q6. Modern feeding systems use which type of energy to formulate energy requirements for dairy cows?

  • Net energy
  • Gross energy
  • Digestible energy
  • All of the above

Q7. The dairy cow has nutrient requirements for which functions?

  • Milk production
  • Maintenance
  • Pregnancy
  • Growth
  • All of the above

Q8. Important factors determining the nutrient requirements of dairy cows are:

  • Milk production
  • Milk fat content
  • Milk protein content
  • All of the above

Q9. Fiber in dairy diets is important because:

  • It is a cheap source of energy
  • It is available locally
  • It stabilizes rumen fermentation
  • It is a good source of amino acids

Q10. Usually, cows are milked for how many days in a year?

  • Around 305
  • Around 365
  • Around 205
  • Around 405

Q11. Commonly, in a dairy farm cows are grouped based on:

  • Lactation stage
  • Milk production
  • Will depend on available facilities
  • All of the above

Q12. To properly formulate diets for dairy cows we need to know:

  • Animal requirements
  • Feed dry matter intake
  • Nutritive composition of the feeds
  • All of the above

Q13. Important nutrients in fresh cow diets include:

  • Effective fiber
  • Sugars
  • Rapidly fermentable starch
  • Non-protein nitrogen

Q14. The neutral-detergent fiber concentration in dairy diets is typically around:

  • 20%
  • 30%
  • 50%
  • 60%

Q15. The crude protein concentration in dairy diets is typically around:

  • 9%
  • 14%
  • 17%
  • 20%

Dairy Production and Management Week 05 Quiz Answers

Q1. Rumen size and papillae development are greatest before weaning when calves are fed:

  • Milk only
  • Hay only
  • Milk and grain
  • All of the above

Q2. Colostrum should be fed within how many hours after birth:

  • one
  • six
  • twelve

Q3. Colostrum quality is determined by:

  • Quantity
  • Dry period length
  • Breed
  • Age of cow
  • All of the above

Q4. After weaning heifers should be grouped by:

  • height
  • weight
  • body condition
  • none of the above

Q5. For large breed heifers age at freshening should be between:

  • 19-20 months
  • 22-24 months
  • Greater than 25 months
  • none of the above

Q6. Dry cows need a minimum of feed bunk space during the dry period:

  • 24 inches (60 cm)
  • 30 inches (76 cm)
  • None of the above

Q7. A two-group feeding system for dry cows includes:

  • 60 day dry period
  • A far-off and close-up group
  • One diet for all cows
  • 60 day dry period and a far-off and close-up group

Q8. Advantages of a one-group dry cow feeding system include:

  • Cows are moved many times
  • Increases the number of ration changes
  • Increases the incidence of early calving
  • Provides rumen fill around the time of calving

Q9. Dry cows reduce their intake prior to calving:

  • Due to inadequate bunk space
  • Overcrowding
  • Poor quality forage in the ration
  • They are too fat
  • All of the above

Q10. Compared to mature cows​ heifers having their first calf, energy and protein concentrations in the diet need to be:

  • Higher
  • Lower

Q11. Total blood protein decreases as the cow approaches calving because:

  • The calf is taking more protein at the same time the cow is eating less
  • There is a lower demand for glucose as lactation starts
  • Skeletal muscle is mobilized from the dam for glucose production
  • The calf is taking more protein at the same time the cow is eating less and skeletal muscle is mobilized from the dam for glucose production

Q12. Considering additional requirements for mammary growth, heifers need approximately how many grams of metabolizable protein:

  • 500 grams
  • 700 grams
  • 1000 grams

Q13. Under feeding protein during the dry period:

  • Will lead to an increased immune function
  • Greater incidence of metabolic diseases after calving
  • Reduces the amount of amino acids required by the fetus and mammary gland
  • Greater incidence of metabolic diseases after calving and reduces the amount of amino acids required by the fetus and mammary gland

Q14. A successful dry cow program includes:

  • Making sure cows are eating well
  • Minimizing cow movements and overcrowding
  • Providing adequate energy, protein and vitamins and minerals
  • Exposing cows to the same feed ingredients that are in the lactating cow ration
  • All of the above

Q15. Cows that are fat during the dry period:

  • Will lose more body condition after calving
  • Make less milk after calving
  • Have greater risk of ketosis after calving
  • Eat less than thin cows
  • All of the above

Dairy Production and Management Week 06 Quiz Answers

Q1. On farms that use ovulation synchronization in the place of heat detection to breed cows, what term replaces heat detection rate in the pregnancy rate equation?

  • Conception rate
  • Ovulation rate
  • Pregnancy rate
  • Submission rate

Q2. Conception rate is calculated by dividing the number of cows pregnant by which other factor?

  • number of cows inseminated
  • number of cows in heat
  • number of cows ovulating
  • number of cows pregnant

Q3. Which of the following will reduce conception rates?

  • Heat stress
  • Diseases, including sub-clinical disease
  • Cows losing weight
  • All of the above

Q4. The majority of pregnancy loss occurs in the first __ weeks of pregnancy.

  • 1-2 weeks
  • 8-10 weeks
  • 4-6 weeks
  • 12-15 weeks

Q5. Which of the following are important in determining the age at which a cow achieves puberty?

  • Age
  • Weight
  • Breed
  • All of the above

Q6. Holstein dairy cows should calve for the first time and enter the milking herd at what age?

  • 18-20 months
  • 20-22 months
  • 22-24 months
  • 24-48 months

Q7. Which of the following is the most accurate description of when a Holstein heifer is ready to be inseminated for the first time?

  • As soon as the heifer exhibits a good standing estrus.
  • When the heifer is two years of age.
  • When the heifer is cycling and achieves 2/3 of her mature body weight and a withers height of 48-50 inches.
  • As soon as she achieves 2/3 of her mature body weight regardless of her skeletal size.

Q8. What is the average time from the onset of estrus to ovulation?

  • 6 hours
  • 12 hours
  • 18 hours
  • 30 hours

Q9. What structure produces the steroid hormone progesterone?

  • Uterus
  • Follicle
  • Corpus luteum
  • Ovary

Q10. What is recommend times and intervals for heat detection?

  • Once per day for 20 minutes
  • Twice a day for 30 minutes
  • Three times per day for 30 minutes
  • Four times per day for 10 minutes

Q11. Which is not a benefit of using artificial insemination?

  • Reduce venereal (sexually transmitted) diseases
  • Simple and can be done without training
  • Reduced costs compared to bull breeding
  • Reduced injuries to cows and personnel

Q12. What is the primary sex steroid produced by the testis that is essential for sperm production?

  • Estrogen
  • Prostaglandin F
  • Progesterone
  • Testosterone

Q13. Which of the following are secondary signs of estrus?

  • Restlessness
  • Chin Resting
  • Mounting other cows
  • All of the above

Q14. Which of the following is the definitive sign that a cow is in estrus?

  • Restlessness
  • Chin Resting
  • Mounting other cows
  • Standing to be mounted by other cows

Q15. What is the average length of estrus in mature cows?

  • 1-2 hours
  • 6-9 hours
  • 12-24 hours
  • > 24 hours

Dairy Production and Management Week 07 Quiz Answers

Q1. Biosecurity practices involve management activities to prevent importation of disease to the farm. Which disease is amendable to prevention by some biosecurity practices?

  • Brucellosis
  • Bovine Virus Diarrhea (BVD)
  • Foot and Mouth Disease
  • Tuberculosis
  • All of the above

Q2. Which of the following activities would be considered important in a preventive medicine program for a dairy herd?

  • Calf and heifer management
  • Disease prevention program
  • Milking system management
  • Nutritional monitoring
  • All of the above

Q3. Expulsion (delivery) of the fetus occurs during which stage of calving?

  • Stage 1
  • Stage 2
  • Stage 3
  • Stage 4
  • During any of the stages

Q4. A common metabolic disease of older cows that is associated with many other diseases is:

  • Displaced abomasum
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Ketosis
  • Metritis
  • Retained fetal membranes

Q5. Which calf management practice should be completed first in a calf born alive?

  • Administer sufficient amount of colostrum
  • Clear air passages and stimulate breathing
  • Spray iodine on navel
  • Dry off and warm calf
  • All of the above

Q6. Which scoring parameter is not used in determining respiratory disease risk status?

  • Eyes or ears
  • Fecal score
  • Nasal discharge
  • Temperature
  • All of the above are used

Q7. What factor is considered an important contributor to postpartum disease conditions?

  • High blood ketone concentration
  • High postpartum feed intake
  • Low blood glucose concentration
  • Low body condition score
  • Reduced prepartum feed intake

Q8. Antibiotic residue is the same as antibiotic resistance in the animal.

  • False, they are not the same
  • True
  • It depends on the country’s regulations

Q9. What practices are responsible for drug residues in meat or milk?

  • Drugs given or fed by mistake
  • Exceeding the approved dosage
  • Treatment records not maintained
  • Withdrawl time is not followed
  • All of the above

Q10. Which of the following practices is an essential component for success of a disease management program for a dairy farm?

  • Use of Standard Operating Procedures
  • Ongoing monitoring and assessment
  • Vaccination program
  • Parasite control program
  • Reproductive management program

Q11. Mastitis is defined as inflammation of one or more quarters of an cow’s udder

  • True
  • False

Q12. On most occasions mastitis in dairy cattle is caused by bacteria

  • True
  • False

Q13. Somatic cells are exclusively produced in the udder and do not come from blood

  • True
  • False

Q14. Milk from cows with somatic cell count of Less than 200,000 cells/mL suggests that cow has a healthy udder.

  • True
  • False

Q15. Effective teat dipping can reduce new udder infections by 50-90%

  • True
  • False

Q16. Poor milk quality results in milk with decreased manufacturing properties and dairy products with reduced shelf-life

  • True
  • False

Q17. Pasteurized milk ordinance describes the state and not federal specifications and standards for the production and handling of Grade “A” raw and pasteurized milk

  • True
  • False

Q18. Milk in the bulk tank should be cooled to <40 F within 30 minutes and not warmed above 50 F when next milking’s milk is added to the tank

  • True
  • False

Q19. The regulatory standard for Standard Plate Count is < 250,000 cfu/ml

  • True
  • False

Q20. Coliforms are a group of bacteria that are associated with fecal and environmental contamination

  • True
  • False

Dairy Production and Management Week 08 Quiz Answers

Q1. The largest expense on a dairy farm in the United States is:

  • Labor
  • Feed
  • Replacements
  • Veterinary Care

Q2. The calculation of income over feed cost per cow is:

  • The sum of all milk income the cow produces
  • Milk income plus the cost of feed
  • The difference between milk income and feed expense
  • None of the above

Q3. Assuming that 1 kg of milk sold for $1.00 (USD), feeding 1 kg of feed to a lactating cow that costs $0.50 (USD) would be:

  • A net gain of $0.50 to $1.50 (USD)
  • A net loss of $0.50 to $1.50 (USD)
  • A net loss of less than $0.50 (USD)
  • A net gain of less than $0.50 (USD)

Q4. Key areas of dairy farm management that impact profitability are:

  • Feeding and nutrition
  • Herd dynamics
  • Raising of replacements
  • All of the above

Q5. In the United States, every $1 million in milk sales from a dairy farm generates:

  • 10 new jobs and $1 million in economic impact
  • 10 new jobs and $5 million in economic impact
  • 17 new jobs and $3 million in economic impact
  • None of the above

Q6. Why is it essential to process farm milk into storable products at some time in the year?

  • Because cows are more productive in some seasons than others
  • Because consumers consume different dairy products in some seasons than others
  • Because you cannot store drinking milk very long after it is produced
  • All of the above

Q7. Farmers often depend on cooperatives to find a processor for their milk because:

  • The supply and demand for milk changes frequently and the farmers often don’t have the contacts or the time to find different customers for their milk.
  • Farmers usually can’t fill an entire milk truck so it is inefficient to have the truck collecting milk from farms to also make many stops at the processing plants
  • Cooperatives sell enough milk to have someone whose entire job is to arrange customers for that days milk and arrange the transportation
  • All of the above

Q8. Why do dairy pricing policies often have a different price for drinking milk than milk made into storable products? (Please select two!)

  • To give the farmers more money by diverting milk from the markets where consumers are least price responsive to markets where lower prices will convince consumers to buy more
  • To try to ensure that the country has a viable dairy industry
  • Because consumers find drinking milk more valuable
  • Because drinking milk has a shorter shelf life

Q9. Why does the number of dairy farmers decrease over time?

  • Because technical progress allows the number of cows per farm to grow rapidly
  • Because the milk production per cow is shrinking
  • Because not many people want to become dairy farmers
  • Because milk consumption is shrinking

Q10. Why don’t people drink more milk when it is on sale?

  • Milk is so cheap that has few good substitutes
  • Fluid milk is not particularly storable and can go bad if it is not consumed promptly
  • Milk is so expensive that most people can barely afford it anyway
  • Milk is a product where people are not especially sensitive to the price

Q11. The most volatile nitrogen in dairy manure comes from:

  • Feces
  • Urine
  • Feed
  • Microbes

Q12. In which situation it is likely that phosphorus in manure may increase?

  • The diet contains large amounts of by-product feeds
  • The diet contains large amounts of corn silage
  • The cow is in early lactation
  • The cow is in late lactation

Q13. The primary source of methane emissions on a dairy farm is:

  • Solid manure
  • Liquid manure
  • The cow
  • The feeding equipment

Q14. An efficient way of minimizing urinary nitrogen losses and ammonia emissions from manure and nitrous oxide emissions from manure-amended soil is:

  • Milking the cow 3 times a day
  • Grouping cows based on milk production
  • Feeding dietary protein close to recommendations
  • Not including urea in the diet

Q15. An effective way of decreasing enteric methane emission intensity on a dairy farm is by:

  • Improving feed efficiency
  • Improving forage quality
  • Increasing milk production of the cows
  • All of the above

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