Introduction to the Biology of Cancer Coursera Quiz Answers

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Introduction to the Biology of Cancer Week 01 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Introduction Quiz

Q1. What is the major risk factor for developing lung cancer?

  • Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
  • Asbestos
  • Smoking
  • Chemical inhalation

Q2. What are the major risk factors for developing liver cancer?

  • Infectious mononucleosis
  • Hepatitis and cirrhosis
  • Smoking and cirrhosis
  • Hepatitis and poor diet

Q3. What are the major risk factors for developing breast cancer?

  • Age, + family history, BRCA1 carrier
  • Age, Chemical inhalation, BRCA1 carrier
  • + family history, dense breast tissue, BRCA3 carrier
  • Age, smoking, dense breast tissue

Q4. What are the major risk factors for developing prostate cancer?

  • Age, + family history, African American race
  • Age, + family history, Asian race
  • Age, + family history, smoking
  • Age, + family history, alcohol abuse

Q5. Not including all forms of cancer, what is the major cause of death worldwide?

  • Heart disease
  • Cancer
  • Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
  • Stroke

Q6. What is the major cause of death in the US?

  • Heart disease
  • Stroke
  • Cancer
  • Alzheimer’s disease

Q7. How is cancer best defined?

  • Spreading growth
  • Cells that move around the body
  • The study of tumors
  • Uncontrolled growth

Q8. Name the major types of cancer

  • Mesothelioma, sarcoma, leukemia, lymphoma
  • Carcinoma, sarcoma, leukemia, lymphoma
  • Carcinoma, mesothelioma, leukemia, myeloma
  • Carcinoma, glioblastoma, sarcoma, lymphoma

Q9. What are the four most common cancers in the US?

  • Liver cancer, stomach cancer, colon cancer, lung cancer
  • Sarcoma, liver cancer, colon cancer, breast cancer
  • Lung cancer, leukemia, stomach cancer, breast cancer
  • Breast cancer, colon cancer, lung cancer, prostate cancer

Q10. What is the single most important risk factor for developing cancer worldwide?

  • Salted foods
  • Alcohol abuse
  • Smoking
  • Obesity

Introduction to the Biology of Cancer Week 02 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Genetics Quiz

Q1. How many copies of each gene do humans have?

  • 2
  • 1
  • 4
  • 8

Q2. What is a gene?

  • a unit of heredity made up of DNA
  • a double helix
  • how DNA is replicated
  • a type of pea plant

Q3. Who is the father of genetics?

  • Charles Darwin
  • Gregor Mendel
  • Samuel Watson
  • Christopher Venters

Q4. What type of BRCA1/2 mutation do women at increased risk for breast cancer have?

  • Inactivating
  • Benign
  • Activating

Q5. An activating mutation occurs in:

  • an unrelated gene
  • a tumor suppressor
  • an oncogene

Q6. Most genetic variation is:

  • Harmful
  • Benign

Q7. Only one copy of a gene (“allele”) needs to be mutated to be cancer-inducing.

  • False
  • True

Q8. Cancer cells have __ rate of mutation compared to normal cells.

  • an identical
  • a lower
  • a higher

Q9. The central dogma describes _.

  • How children inherit DNA from their parents
  • How genotype is expressed as a phenotype
  • Transcription of DNA to RNA, translation of RNA to protein, and synthesis of protein

Q10. DNA damage and replication errors arise by

  • both environmental carcinogens and chance errors during replication
  • environmental carcinogens
  • chance errors during replication
  • neither environmental carcinogens or chance errors during replication

Introduction to the Biology of Cancer Week 03 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Hallmarks Quiz

Q1. One way cancer cells differ from normal cells is metabolism. What effect is this phenomenon known as?

  • None of these options
  • Telomerase Effect
  • Warburg Effect
  • Watson Effect

Q2. Typically, cancer cells produce __ via this process

  • Glucose
  • Hydrochloric
  • Lactate

Q3. Cancer cells differ from normal cells as they are able to up-regulate signals to attenuate CD-8+ T Cell proliferation. What ligand do tumor cells up-regulate?

  • CP L2.
  • Both of these.
  • PD L1.

Q4. Immune cells promote inflammation by secreting _____.

  • cytokines
  • water
  • cytokines and chemokines
  • chemokines

Q5. Typically, cancer cells are able to evade which type of cells?

  • B cells and T cells
  • Macrophages
  • B cells, T cells, and macrophages
  • Other cancer cells

Q6. One way cancer cells differ from normal cells is that cancer cells can become immortal. Which enzyme do cancer cells use to elongate telomeres?

  • None of these options
  • Ribosomes
  • DNA
  • Telomerase

Q7. Typically, a normal cell will stop dividing once the cell reaches __

  • Dunn’s limit
  • Hayflick’s Limit.
  • Rivers limit organs

Q8. Cancer cells can typically have mutations and deletions in which of the following?

  • Both
  • p53
  • Rb.

Q9. Other ways cancer cells differ from normal cells is that cancer cells can :

  • Sustain proliferation
  • Evade growth suppression
  • Harbor an unstable genome
  • All of these options
  • Avoid cell death

Q10. Typically, a cancer cell can over-express a gene that contributes to tumor cell proliferation and tumor formation. This gene is known as __

  • a blue gene
  • a tumor suppressor
  • an oncogene

Q11. Normal eukaryotic cells detect DNA damage and can do what?

  • Continue the cell cycle
  • Pause the cell cycle, repair the damage, re-enter the cell cycle
  • None of these

Q12. Cancer cells form new blood vessels by inducing ___

  • Angiogenesis
  • Primary tumor growth
  • Intravasation
  • EMT

Q13. Cancer cells initiate this process in order to obtain which of the following. Check all that apply.

  • EMT
  • oxygen
  • nutrients

Q14. Which of the following are key steps in metastasis?

  • Intravasation
  • Extravasation
  • Invasion

Q15. Which hallmark entails the immortality of the cancer cells?

  • Hallmark #10 Activation of metastasis
  • Hallmark #1 Replicative Immortality
  • Hallmark # 9 Angiogenesis
  • EMT

Q16. Genes that are found to be deleted or mutationally inactivated in cancers and allow them to grow are called __ .

  • Nutrients and Tumor Suppressor Genes
  • Nutrients
  • Tumor Suppressor Genes and Oncogene
  • Oncogenes
  • Tumor Suppressor Genes

Q17. What anti-apoptotic protein was discussed that is seen up-regulated in cancer cells that allows them to resist cellular death?

  • XL-B
  • None of these
  • Both of these
  • Bcl-xL and other Bcl-2 family members

Q18. For cancer cells to evade the immune system, they possess the ability to up-regulate __ , which suppresses T Cell proliferation.

  • EMT
  • VEGF
  • Telomerase
  • Programmed Death Ligand 1 (PD L1)

Introduction to the Biology of Cancer Week 04 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Metastasis Quiz

Q1. Which Hallmark of Cancer does NOT promote metastasis?

  • Angiogenesis
  • Evading growth suppression
  • Genome instability
  • None of these options

Q2. Metastasis is…

  • The growth of a benign tumor.
  • The spread of cancer to other organs.
  • Prostate cancer growing in the prostate.
  • Cancer cells that die in the circulation.

Q3. True or false: The prognosis of metastatic cancer is generally more favorable than non-metastatic cancer.

  • False
  • True

Q4. Identify the correct nomenclature for the TNM staging system:

  • Teratoma, Neural degradation, Mucus membrane
  • Tumor size, lymph Node involvement, Malleability
  • Tumor size, lymph Node involvement, Metastasis
  • Thyroid involvement, Nuclear instability, Matrix

Q5. Which is the most advanced cancer?

  • T2N1M1
  • T3N1M1
  • T1N0M0
  • T2N1M0

Q6. Identify the correct order of steps of metastasis.

  • Growth of secondary tumor
    • Intravasation
    • Angiogenesis
  • Primary tumor growth
    • Extravasation
    • EMT
  • Angiogenesis
    • Extravasation
    • Intravasation
  • Primary tumor growth
    • EMT
    • Survival in circulation

Q7. Cancer cells initiate this process in order to obtain nutrients and oxygen:

  • Extravasation
  • Intravasation
  • EMT
  • Angiogenesis

Q8. What does the word “homing” mean in the context of metastasis?

  • Cancer cells migrate back to the tumor of origin.
  • The immune system kills cancer cells to defend their home.
  • Cancer cells growing in a tumor create a home in their organ of origin.
  • Cancer cells tend to metastasize to certain organs.

Q9. Movement of an organism (or cancer cells) from its native habitat is…

  • Easy
  • Low risk
  • High risk
  • Random

Q10. Cancer cell proliferation and tumor formation cause an autotrophic…

  • Swamp
  • Cloud
  • Pond
  • Garden

Introduction to the Biology of Cancer Week 05 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Imaging Quiz

Q1. A 25-year-old has had a plain film chest x-ray as part of a work-up for his 1-month history of coughing up blood. The chest x-ray showed a mass in the middle right lung. A chest CT scan is ordered. What additional information will the CT scan provide?

  • The length and width (2-dimensional measurements) of the mass.
  • The density of the mass in relation to other nearby structures.
  • The location of the mass in relation to the other nearby structures.

Q2. 3-dimensional imaging is most commonly performed based on the anatomic planes of the human body. An image from the axial view, which is along the transverse plane of the body, separates what areas of the body?

  • Head from feet
  • Front from back
  • Right from left
  • Left from right

Q3. A student is learning about medical imaging. What would be a logical way (which was discussed in the lecture) to categorize the many types of imaging tests?

  • By the type of color scale used in the image. (Examples: greyscale and color-enhanced scale)
  • By the type of energy used to produce the image. (Examples: magnetic field and sound waves)
  • By the type of imaging device to be used. (Examples: CT scanner and tube)
  • By the anatomical part of the body to be imaged. (Examples: head imaging and body imaging)

Q4. X-rays are included in the electromagnetic spectrum. What characteristics do they have that allow them to penetrate tissue in the human body to create an image?

  • Short wavelength and high energy
  • Short wavelength and low energy
  • Long wavelength and low energy
  • Long wavelength and high energy

Q5. A 70-year-old has smoked tobacco since he was 15 years old. He is healthy. What cancer management technique would be appropriate for him?

  • Monitor after therapy
  • Cancer staging
  • Cancer Diagnosis
  • Screening

Q6. A 50-year-old has newly diagnosed colon cancer. CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis have been obtained. Why were these particular staging scans obtained?

  • They were obtained based on the treatment that is planned- treatment-directed staging.
  • They are based on findings in the diagnostic imaging test.
  • They were obtained based on the anatomic areas closest to the colon – anatomic proximity
  • They were obtained based on where colon cancer typically likes to go, also known as tropism.

Q7. A 25-year-old with brain cancer has been treated with surgery, radiation, and chemotherapy. Then he had a brain MRI that showed the brain tumor had decreased in size- a partial response (PR). What was the purpose of the brain scan imaging assessment?

  • Measure baseline disease and guide treatment initiation
  • Measure the effect of treatment response on nearby structures and guide future imaging
  • Measure treatment response and guide treatment

Q8. A 60-year-old was diagnosed with colon cancer. Staging showed the disease was limited to the colon and to one metastatic lesion in the liver. He was successfully treated with surgery to remove the cancer in the colon and chemotherapy to kill the cancer outside of the colon. Since then he has had monitoring imaging every 6 months, with a CT scan. How does the cancer hallmark “angiogenesis” explain why these scans can be used to monitor him for a possible recurrence of the cancer?

  • Viable cancer forms new vessels that are taken up by the imaging contrast; once the cancer is dead those areas will no longer “light up” on the imaging.
  • Viable cancer has altered metabolic processes and will metabolize sugars at a higher rate; once the cancer is dead those areas will no longer “light up” on imaging.
  • Viable cancer has genomic instability, which promotes increased density on imaging scans; once the cancer is dead its genomic profile stabilizes and the cancer density is similar to that of surrounding tissues.

Q9. A 55-year-old has been diagnosed with prostate cancer and the staging imaging showed one additional site of metastasis- in a rib. He has been deemed as having oligometastatic prostate cancer. He is asking why his oligometastasis is different from his friend’s widespread metastasis which was spread in many places throughout his ribs, spine, and lymph nodes. Which of the proposed mechanisms of the biology of oligometastasis is NOT TRUE?

  • Organs where the cancer cells attempted to spread were not hospitable.
  • Cancer cells that spread to outside organs facilitated angiogenesis and altered cellular metabolism.
  • The environment inside his prostate cancer primary tumor may not have been harsh, and the cancer cells that broke off and began to spread were not aggressive
  • Few of the cancer cells that spread outside of the primary prostate cancer survived circulation throughout the body.

Q10. The 55-year-old who was diagnosed with oligometastatic prostate cancer will have a treatment plan with the goal to:

  • Cure the cancer
  • Stabilize the cancer
  • Slow the cancer progression
  • Control the cancer symptoms

Introduction to the Biology of Cancer Week 06 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Treatment Quiz

Q1. Adjuvant therapy:

  • Occurs prior to surgery to treat a primary tumor
  • Is the first-line therapy for metastatic cancer
  • Occurs after surgery or radiation to treat a primary tumor
  • Usually includes an immunotherapy

Q2. The first line therapy for metastatic prostate cancer is:

  • Chemotherapy
  • Surgery
  • Targeted therapy
  • Hormone therapy

Q3. Bevacizumab (Avastin®) inhibits:

  • EGFR
  • VEGF
  • DNA replication
  • HER2

Q4. An otherwise healthy man has a small tumor in his lower lung. Correct first-line therapy is most likely:

  • Hormone therapy
  • Targeted therapy
  • Surgery
  • Chemotherapy

Q5. The two main ways that chemotherapy attacks cancer cells are:

  • Stopping DNA replication and RNA transcription
  • Stopping cancer cells from metastasizing
  • Stopping cell mitosis and RNA transcription
  • Stopping DNA replication and cell mitosis

Q6. Docetaxel (Taxotere®) inhibits cancer cell division by:

  • Binding to topoisomerase II
  • Blocking mitosis
  • Binding to T-cells
  • Binding to DNA

Q7. The two checkpoints currently targeted by immunotherapy are:

  • PD-1 and PD-2
  • PD-1 and CTLA-4
  • BH7 and PD-1
  • CTLA-4 and CTLA-6

Q8. The main effector cells targeted by the checkpoint inhibitors is:

  • The B-cell
  • The cancer cells
  • Neutrophils
  • T-cells

Q9. A Phase III clinical trial:

  • Determines if the new therapy has any activity against cancer
  • Compares the new drug to the standard of care
  • Tests a new therapy in monkeys
  • Is done to find out how toxic the new therapy is

Q10. A phase I clinical trial:

  • Compares the new drug to the standard of care
  • Finds the maximally tolerated dose of a new agent
  • \=]-p0[9o8ijuy67defgrwaqwxedciko9p0-[;
  • termines how efficacious the agent is against a cancer
  • Tests the new agent in mice

Quiz 2: Liver Cancer Quiz

Q1. What are the risk factors for liver cancer?

  • Asbestos
  • Smoking
  • Family history of hemochromatosis, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C
  • Eating a diet high in fruits and vegetables

Q2. Liver cancer is most likely to be discovered in:

  • An 80-year-old man with heart disease
  • A 60-year-old man with chronic Hepatitis B and cirrhosis
  • A 20-year-old man who smokes daily
  • A 30-year-old woman

Q3. When staging liver cancer, T stage refers to:

  • The presence of metastases
  • The
    number of lymph nodes involved
  • The size of the liver tumor(s)
  • The histologic type of liver cancer

Q4. The Child-Pugh system assesses:

  • Prothrombin time, blood albumin level, blood bilirubin level
  • Hepatitis B viral load
  • White blood count, red blood count, bilirubin level
  • The size of the primary liver tumor

Q5. Radiofrequency ablation for liver cancer may be curative when:

  • There is liver cancer that has invaded tissue around the liver
  • There are 3 tumors present, each greater than 3 cm in diameter
  • There is a single tumor that is 6 cm in diameter
  • There is a single tumor, less than 3 cm in diameter

Q6. Sorafenib is safest to use in patients with:

  • Child-Pugh Class C
  • Child-Pugh Class B
  • Child-Pugh Class A
  • Child-Pugh Class A, B, or C

Q7. Patients with cirrhosis:

  • Have a higher risk of developing liver cancer
  • Have a lower risk of developing liver cancer
  • Often have a history of Hepatitis B or Hepatitis C infection
  • Have a higher risk of developing liver cancer and often have a history of Hepatitis B or Hepatitis C infection

Q8. Types of locoregional therapy include:

  • Radiofrequency ablation
  • All of these options
  • Microwave ablation
  • Cryoablation

Q9. The liver:

  • Is not necessary for life and can
    be removed easily
  • Makes urine to eliminate waste
  • Helps people breathe
  • Is unique because it has arterial and portal circulations

Q10. Liver transplant as a treatment for liver cancer:

  • Is the treatment of choice in a Child-Pugh Class B patient with three 5 cm tumors.
  • Is the treatment of choice for metastatic liver cancer
  • Could be the treatment of choice in Child-Pugh Class A patients with a single 3 cm tumor
  • Is the treatment of choice in Child-Pugh Class C patients
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