Table of Contents
Cybersecurity Compliance Framework & System Administration Week 01 Quiz Answers
Compliance and Regulations for Cybersecurity
Q1. Which of the bad guys are described as “They are “in” an organization but are human and make mistakes”?
- Inadvertant Actor
Q2. Which is NOT one of the security controls?
Q3. What year did the GDPR come into effect?
Q4. Which three (3) of these obligations are part of the 5 key GDPR obligations? Check all that apply
- Accountability of Compliance
- Rights of EU Data Subject
Quiz 02: System and Organization Controls Report (SOC) Overview
Q1. Which is the foundational principle that everyone will get during a SOC audit?
Q1. The HIPAA security rule requires covered entites to maintain which two (2) reasonable safeguards for protecting e-PHI?
Q2. HIPAA Administrative safeguards include which two (2) of the following ?
- Security Personnel
- Workforce Training and Management
Q3. PCI includes 264 requirements grouped under how many main requirements ?
CIS Critical Security Controls
Q1. If you are a mature organization which CIS Controls Implementation Group would you use?
- Implementation Group 3
Quiz 03: Compliance Frameworks and Industry Standards
Q1. A security attack is defined as which of the following?
- An event that has been identified by correlation and analytics tools as a malicious activity.
Q2. Which order does a typical compliance process follow?
- Establish scope, readiness assessment, gap remediation, testing/auditing, management reporting
Q3. Under GDPR who determines the purpose and means of processing of personal data?
Q4. Under the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) which standard focuses on Privacy?
- ISO 27018
Q5. Which SOC report is closest to an ISO report?
- Type 1
Q6. What is an auditor looking for when they test control the control for implementation over an entire offering with no gaps?
Q7. The HIPAA Security Rule requires covered entities to maintain which three (3) reasonable safeguards for protecting e-PHI?
Q8. HIPAA Administrative safeguards include which two (2) of the following?
- Workforce training and management
- Security Personnel
Q9. Who is the governing entity for HIPAA?
- US Department of Health and Human Services Office of Civil Rights
Q10. HIPAA Physical safeguards include which two (2) of the following?
- Workstation and Device Security
- Facility Access and Control
Q11. PCI uses which three (3) of the following Card Holder Data Environment categories to determine scope?
Q12. One PCI Requirement is using an approved scanning vendor to scan at what frequency?
Q13. In which CIS control category will you find Incident Response and Management?
Cybersecurity Compliance Framework & System Administration Week 02 Quiz Answers
Client System Administration and Endpoint Protection
Q1. Which is NOT an example of a client?
- e-mail Server
Q2. Which three (3) threat key factors should be considered when looking at an Endpoint Security Solution?
- threat hunting
- user education
- detection response
Q1. A patch is a set of changes to a computer program or its data designed for which three (3) functions?
Q2. Which two types of updates do most organizations patch as soon as possible after testing?
- Security and Critical
Client System Administration, Endpoint Protection and Patching
Q1. Which three (3) are common Endpoint attack types?
- Whale hunting
- Ad Network
- Spear Phishing
Q2. Endpoint detection and response includes which three (3) of these key technologies?
- Zero-day OS updates.
- Automatic policy creation for endpoints.
- Continuous monitoring.
Q3. Which common endpoint attack is targeted at supply chain infiltration?
- Island Hopping
Q4. What two windows security updates do most organizations always patch?
- critical and important
Q5. How frequently will most organizations distribute patches?
Cybersecurity Compliance Framework & System Administration Week 03 Quiz Answers
Q1. Which three (3) objects are typically managed by active directory?
- Network User
Q2. Which type of group within Active Directory is used to assign permissions to shared resources?
- Security groups
Q3. Does Kerberos Authentication provide several benefits including which three (3) of the following?
- single sign on
- delegated authentication
Q4. Which of the nine different kinds of Windows events that can be audited is used to see when someone has shut down or restarted the computer or when a program tries to do something it does not have permission to do?
- System events
Q1. True or False: Internal commands are built into the shell program and are shell dependent?
Q2. Which Linux Run Level shuts down all services when the system is being rebooted?
- Run Level 6: Reboot
Server and User Administration
Q1. Which Windows directory folder stores per-user application data and settings?
Q2. Which is NOT an example of a default Windows local user account?
- Network Service
Q3. Which feature allows Active Directory to be shared by multiple servers?
- A replication services
Q4. Which three (3) of the following steps can be taken to help protect sensitive Windows domain accounts? (Select 3)
- Separate administrator accounts from user accounts.
- Disable the account delegation rights for administrator accounts.
- Create dedicated workstation hosts without Internet and email access.
Q5. What tool can an administrator use to manage servers on private networks that are not connected to the Internet?
- Windows Admin Center
Q6. Which of the nine different kinds of Windows events that can be audited is used to see each instance of a user logging on to and logging off from another computer?
- Account logon
Q7. Which of these commands does not shut down the Linux operating system?
- itit 6
- shutdown -r
Q8. Which Linux commands are totally shell-independent and usually found in any Linux distribution?
- External commands
Q9. Which three (3) of the following are common choices of Shell?
Cybersecurity Compliance Framework & System Administration Week 04 Quiz Answers
Q1. Which of the cryptography basics ensures authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity?
- Digital Signatures
Q2. Complete the following statement.
Data can be encrypted_____
- at rest, in use, and in transit.
Q3. Which is NOT a pitfall of encryption?
- Implementing a reliable and proven cryptography
Q4. True or False: Internal commands are built into the shell program and are shell-dependent.
Cryptography and Compliance Pitfalls
Q1. True or False: A whole branch of hacking – Reverse Engineering – is devoted to discovering hidden algorithms and data.
Q2. Which is not a key takeaway of best practices of cryptography?
- Do rely on your own encryption algorithms.
Q3. Which three (3) are true of digital signatures?
- Ensures authentication, non-reputiation, and integrity
Q4. What is the recommendation to avoid the encrypting data at rest pitfall “Using hardcoded/easily guessed keys”?
- Select cryptographically-random keys, do not reuse keys for different installs.
Q5. Which two (2) statements are true of the Hash function?
- Hashing provides integrity.
- Maps data of arbitrary size to data of a fixed size.
All Course Quiz Answers of IBM Cybersecurity Analyst Professional Certificate
Course 01: Introduction to Cybersecurity Tools & Cyber Attacks
Course 02: Cybersecurity Roles, Processes & Operating System Security
Course 03: Cybersecurity Compliance Framework & System Administration
Course 04: Network Security & Database Vulnerabilities
Course 05: Penetration Testing, Incident Response, and Forensics
Course 06: Cyber Threat Intelligence
Course 07: Cybersecurity Capstone: Breach Response Case Studies
Course 08: IBM Cybersecurity Analyst Assessment