All Weeks IBM Cybersecurity Analyst Assessment Coursera Quiz Answers
A growing number of exciting, well-paying jobs in today’s security industry do not require a college degree. This is the final course required to assess your acquired knowledge and skills from the previous two specializations, IT Fundamentals of Cybersecurity and Security Analyst Fundamentals, to become job-ready for a cybersecurity analyst role.
You will be expected to pass a final assessment quiz for each of the seven (7) prior courses within the IBM Cybersecurity Analyst Professional Certificate. Upon successful completion of the quizzes, you will acquire the IBM Cybersecurity Analyst Professional Certificate.
IBM Cybersecurity Analyst Assessment Coursera Quiz Answers
Q1. Implementing a Security Awareness training program would be an example of which type of control?
- Administrative control
Q2. Putting locks on a door is an example of which type of control?
Q3. How would you classify a piece of malicious code that can replicate itself and spread to new systems?
- A worm
Q4. To engage in packet sniffing, you must implement promiscuous mode on which device?
- A network card
- An Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
- A sniffing router
Q5. Which mechanism would help assure the integrity of a message, but not do much to assure confidentiality or availability?
Q6. An organization wants to restrict employee after-hours access to its systems so it publishes a policy forbidding employees to work outside of their assigned hours and then makes sure the office doors remain locked on weekends. What two (2) types of controls are they using? (Select 2)
Q7. Which two factors contribute to cryptographic strength? (Select 2)
- The use of cyphers that are based on complex mathematical algorithms
- The use of cyphers that have undergone public scrutiny
Q8. Trying to break an encryption key by trying every possible combination of characters is called what?
- A brute force attack
Q9. Which of the following describes the core goals of IT security?
- The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Framework
- The Business Process Management Framework
- The CIA Triad
Q10. Which three (3) roles are typically found in an Information Security organization? (Select 3)
- Vulnerability Assessor
- Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
- Penetration Tester
Q11. Problem Management, Change Management, and Incident Management are all key processes of which framework?
Q12. Alice sends a message to Bob that is intercepted by Trudy. Which scenario describes an integrity violation?
- Trudy reads the message
- Trudy deletes the message without forwarding it
Q13. In cybersecurity, Accountability is defined as what?
- Being able to map an action to an identity
Q14. Multifactor authentication (MFA) requires more than one authentication method to be used before identity is authenticated. Which three (3) are authentication methods? (Select 3)
- Something a person is
- Something a person has
- Something a person knows
Q15. Which three (3) of the following are Physical Access Controls? (Select 3)
- Door locks
- Security guards
Q16. If you are setting up a Windows 10 laptop with a 32Gb hard drive, which two (2) file systems could you select? (Select 2)
Q17. Which three (3) permissions can be set on a file in Linux? (Select 3)
Q18. If cost is the primary concern, which type of cloud should be considered first?
- Public cloud
Q19. Consolidating and virtualizing workloads should be done when?
- Before moving the workloads to the cloud
Q20. Which of the following is a self-regulating standard set up by the credit card industry in the US?
Q21. Which two (2) of the following attack types target endpoints?
- Ad Network
- Spear Phishing
Q22. If an Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) system detects that an endpoint does not have a required patch installed, which statement best characterizes the actions it is able to take automatically?
- The endpoint can be quarantined from all network resources except those that allow it to download and install the missing patch
Q23. Granting access to a user based upon how high up he is in an organization violates what basic security premise?
- The principle of least privileges
Q24. Hashing ensures which of the following?
Q25. Which of these methods ensures the authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity of digital communication?
- Use of digital signatures
Q26. Which three (3) of these are benefits you can realize from using a NAT (Network Address Translation) router? (Select 3)
- Allows static 1-to-1 mapping of local IP addresses to global IP addresses
- Allows dynamic mapping of many local IP addresses to a smaller number of global IP address only when they are needed
- Allows internal IP addresses to be hidden from outside observers
Q27. Which statement best describes configuring a NAT router to use static mapping?
- The organization will need as many registered IP addresses as it has computers that need Internet access
Q28. If a computer needs to send a message to a system that is part of the local network, where does it send the message?
- To the system’s MAC address
Q29. Which are properties of a highly available system?
- Redundancy, failover and monitoring
Q30. Which three (3) of these statements about the UDP protocol are True? (Select 3)
- UDP is faster than TCP
- UDP packets are reassembled by the receiving system in whatever order they are received
- UDP is connectionless
Q31. What is one difference between a Stateful Firewall and a Next-Generation Firewall?
- A NGFW understand which application sent a given packet
Q32. You are concerned that your organization is really not very experienced with securing data sources. Which hosting model would require you to secure the fewest data sources?
Q33. Hassan is an engineer who works a normal day shift from his company’s headquarters in Austin, TX USA. Which two (2) of these activities raise the most cause for concern? (Select 2)
- Each night Hassan logs into his account from an ISP in China
- One evening, Hassan downloads all of the files associated with the new product he is working on
Q34. Which three (3) of the following are considered safe coding practices? (Select 3)
- Use library functions in place of OS commands
- Avoid using OS commands whenever possible
- Avoid running commands through a shell interpreter
Q35. Which three (3) items should be included in the Planning step of a penetration test? (Select 3)
- Informing Need-to-know employees
- Establishing Boundaries
- Setting Objectives
Q36. Which portion of the pentest report would cover the risk ranking, recommendations, and roadmap?
- Executive Summary
Q41. NIST recommends considering a number of items, including a high level of testing and monitoring, during which stage of a comprehensive Containment, Eradication & Recovery strategy?
Q37. True or False. Digital forensics is effective in solving cyber crimes but is not considered effective in solving violent crimes such as rape and murder.
Q38. Which three (3) are common obstacles faced when trying to examine forensic data? (Select 3)
- Selecting the right tools to help filter and exclude irrelevant data
- Finding the relevant files among the hundreds of thousands found on most hard drives
- Bypassing controls such as passwords
Q39. What scripting concept will repeatedly execute the same block of code while a specified condition remains true?
Q40. Which two (2) statements about Python are true? (Select 2)
- Python code is considered easy to debug compared with other popular programming languages
- Python code is considered very readable by novice programmers
Q41. In the Python statement
What data type is the data type of the variable pi?
Q42. What will be printed by the following block of Python code?
Q43. Which threat intelligence framework was developed by the US Government to enable consistent characterization and categorization of cyberthreat events?
- Cyber Threat Framework
Q44. True or False. An organization’s security immune system should be integrated with outside organizations, including vendors and other third parties.
Q45. Which three (3) of these are among the top 12 capabilities that a good data security and protection solution should provide? (Select 3)
- Vulnerability assessment
- Real-time alerting
Q46. True or False. For iOS and Android mobile devices, users must interact with the operating system only through a series of applications, but not directly.
Q47. All industries have their own unique data security challenges. Which of these industries has a particular concern with PCI-DSS compliance while having a large number of access points staffed by low-level employees who have access to payment card data?
Q48. True or False. WireShark has an impressive array of features and is distributed free of charge.
Q49. In which component of a Common Vulnerability Score (CVSS) would privileges required be reflected?
- Base-Exploitability Subscore
Q50. The Decommission step in the DevSecOps Release, Deploy & Decommission phase contains which of these activities?
- IAM controls to regulate authorization
Q51. You calculate that there is a 2% probability that a cybercriminal will be able to steal credit card numbers from your online storefront which will result in $10M in losses to your company. What have you just determined?
- A risk
Q52. Which one of the OWASP Top 10 Application Security Risks would occur when an application’s API exposes financial, healthcare or other PII data?
- Sensitive data exposure
Q53. Which three (3) of these are Solution Building Blocks (SBBs)? (Select 3)
- Virus Protection
- Application Firewall
- Spam Filter
Q54. A robust cybersecurity defense includes contributions from 3 areas, human expertise, security analytics and artificial intelligence. Rapidly analyzing large quantities of unstructured data lends itself best to which of these areas ?
- Artificial intelligence
Q55. The triad of a security operations centers (SOC) is People, Process and Technology. Which part of the triad would network monitoring belong ?
Q56. Which of these is a good definition for cyber threat hunting ?
- The act of proactively and aggressively identifying, intercepting, tracking, investigating and eliminating cyber adversaries as early as possible in the cyber kill chain
Q57. There is value brought by each of the IBM i2 EIA use cases. Which one of these provides immediate alerting on brand compromises and fraud on the dark web.
- Threat Discovery
Q58. Which three (3) soft skills are important to have in an organization’s incident response team? (Select 3)
- Problem solving and Critical thinking
Q59. Implementing strong endpoint detection and mitigation strategies falls into which phase of the incident response lifecycle ?
- Detection & Analysis
Q60. Which three (3) of these statistics about phishing attacks are real? (Select 3)
- Around 15 million new phishing sites are created each month
- Phishing accounts for nearly 20% of data breaches
- 30% of phishing messages are opened by their targeted users
Q61. Which three (3) of these control processes are included in the PCI-DSS standard? (Select 3)
- Implement strong access control measures
- Regularly monitor and test networks
- Maintain an information security policy
Q62. Which three (3) are malware types commonly used in PoS attacks to steal credit card data ? (Select 3)
Q63. According to a 2019 Ponemon study, what percent of consumers indicated they would be willing to pay more for a product or service from a provider with better security ?
Q64. You get a phone call from a technician at the “Windows company” who tells you that they have detected a problem with your system and would like to help you resolve it. In order to help, they need you to go to a web site and download a simple utility that will allow them to fix the settings on your computer. Since you only own an Apple Mac, you are suspicious of this caller and hang up. What would the attack vector have been if you had downloaded the “simple utility” as asked ?
- Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
Q65. What is an effective fully automated way to prevent malware from entering your system as an email attachment ?
- Anti-virus software
Q66. True or False. The large majority of stolen credit card numbers are used quickly by the thief or a member of his/her family.
Q67. Which three (3) of these are PCI-DSS requirements for any company handling, processing or transmitting credit card data? (Select 3)
- Restrict access to cardholder data by business need-to-know
- Assign a unique ID to each person with computer access
- Restrict physical access to cardholder data
Q68. True or False. Communications of a data breach should be handled by a team composed of members of the IR team, legal personnel and public relations.
Q69. The partnership between security analysts and technology can be said to be grouped into 3 domains, human expertise, security analytics and artificial intelligence. The human expertise domain would contain which three (3) of these topics ?
Q70. Solution architectures often contain diagrams like the one below. What does this diagram show ?
<<Solution Architecture Data Flow.png>>
- Functional components and data flow
Q71. Port numbers 1024 through 49151 are known as what ?
- Registered Ports
Q72. Which layer of the OSI model to packet sniffers operate on ?
- Data Link
Q73. True or False. Internal attacks from trusted employees represents every bit as significant a threat as external attacks from professional cyber criminals.
Q74. According to the FireEye Mandiant’s Security Effectiveness Report 2020, what fraction of security tools are deployed with default settings and thus underperform expectations ?
Q74. Which country had the highest average cost per breach in 2018 at $8.19M
- United States
Q76. Which two (2) of these Python libraries provides useful statistical functions? (Select 2)
Q77. What will print out when this block of Python code is run ?
Q78. Which three (3) statements about Python variables are true? (Select 3)
- A variable name must start with a letter or the underscore “_” character
- Variables can change type after they have been set
- Variables do not have to be declared in advance of their use
Q79. PowerShell is a configuration management framework for which operating system ?
Q80. In digital forensics documenting the chain of custody of evidence is critical. Which of these should be included in your chain of custody log ?
- All of the above
Q81. Forensic analysis should always be conducted on a copy of the original data. Which two (2) types of copying are appropriate for getting data from a laptop acquired from a terminated employee, if you suspect he has deleted incriminating files ? (Select 2)
- An incremental backup
- A logical backup
Q82. Which of the following would be considered an incident precursor ?
- An alert from your antivirus software indicating it had detected malware on your system
- An announced threat against your organization by a hactivist group
Q83. If a penetration test calls for you to create a diagram of the target network including the identity of hosts and servers as well as a list of open ports and published services, which tool would be the best fit for this task ?
Q84. Which type of list is considered best for safe coding practice ?
Q85. Which three (3) of these statements about the TCP protocol are True? (Select 3)
- TCP packets are reassembled by the receiving system in the order in which they were sent
- TCP is more reliable than UDP
- TCP is connection-oriented
Q86. In IPv4, how many of the 4 octets are used to define the network portion of the address in a Class B network ?
Q87. A small company with 25 computers wishes to connect them to the Internet using a NAT router. How many Public IP addresses will this company need to assure all 25 computers can communicate with each other and other systems on the Internet if they implement Port Address Translations ?
Q88. Which of the following statements about hashing is True ?
- Hashing uses algorithms that are known as “one-way” functions
Q89. Why is hashing not a common method used for encrypting data ?
- Hashing is a one-way process so the original data cannot be reconstructed from a hash value
Q90. Public key encryption incorporating digital signatures ensures which of the following ?
- Confidentiality and Integrity
Q91. What is the primary authentication protocol used by Microsoft in Active Directory ?
Q92. Granting access to a user account only those privileges necessary to perform its intended functions is known as what ?
- The principle of least privileges
Q93. Island hopping is an attack method commonly used in which scenario ?
- Supply Chain Infiltration
Q94. Which security concerns follow your workload even after it is successfully moved to the cloud ?
- All of the above
Q95. Which form of Cloud computing combines both public and private clouds ?
- Hybrid cloud
Q96. Which component of the Linux operating system interacts with your computer’s hardware ?
- The kernel
Q97. The encryption and protocols used to prevent unauthorized access to data are examples of which type of access control ?
Q98. In cybersecurity, Authenticity is defined as what ?
- The property of being genuine and verifiable
99. ITIL is best described as what ?
- A collection of IT Service Management best practices
Q100. Which position is in charge of testing the security and effectiveness of computer information systems ?
- Information Security Auditor
Q101. A company wants to prevent employees from wasting time on social media sites. To accomplish this, a document forbidding use of these sites while at work is written and circulated and then the firewalls are updated to block access to Facebook, Twitter and other popular sites. Which two (2) types of security controls has the company just implemented? (Select 2)
Q102. An email message that is encrypted, uses a digital signature and carries a hash value would address which aspects of the CIA Triad?
- Confidentiality and Integrity
Q103. What would a piece of malicious code that gets installed on a computer and reports back to the controller your keystrokes and other information it can gather from your system be called ?
Q104. Fancy Bears and Anonymous are examples of what ?
- Hacking organizations
Q105. Implement a filter to remove flooded packets before they reach the host is a countermeasure to which form of attack ?
- A Denial of Service (DoS) attack
Q106. Trudy intercepts a romantic plain-text message from Alice to her boyfriend Sam. The message upsets Trudy so she forwards it to Bob, making it look like Alice intended it for Bob from the beginning. Which aspect of the CIA Triad has Trudy violated ?
- All of the above
Q107. Which position is responsible for the “ethical hacking” of an organizations computer systems ?
- A Penetration Tester
Q108. Which three (3) are considered best practices, baselines or frameworks? (Select 3)
- ISO27000 series
Q109. What does the “A” in the CIA Triad stand for ?
Q110. Windows 10 stores 64-bit applications in which directory ?
- \Program Files
Q111. Which statement about drivers running in Windows kernel mode is true ?
- Only critical processes are permitted to run in kernel mode since there is nothing to prevent a
Q112. Which statement best describes configuring a NAT router to use dynamic mapping ?
- Many registered IP addresses are mapped to a single registered IP address using different port numbers
- Unregistered IP addresses are mapped to registered IP addresses as they are needed
Q113. Which address type does a computer use to get a new IP address when it boots up ?
- The network’s DHCP server address
Q114. Which type of firewall understands which session a packet belongs to and analyzes it accordingly ?
- A Next Generation Firewall (NGFW)
Q115. A penetration tester involved in a “Black box” attack would be doing what ?
- Attempting to penetrate a client’s systems as if she were an external hacker with no inside knowled
Q116. In digital forensics, which three (3) steps are involved in the collection of data? (Select 3)
- Develop a plan to acquire the data
- Verify the integrity of the data
- Acquire the data
Q117. Which three (3) of the following are considered scripting languages? (Select 3)
Q118. What is the largest number that will be printed during the execution of this Python while loop ?
Q119. Activities performed as a part of security intelligence can be divided into pre-exploit and post-exploit activities. Which two (2) of these are post-exploit activities? (Select 2)
- Gather full situational awareness through advanced security analytics
- Perform forensic investigation
- Cross-site scripting
Q121. SIEM license costs are typically calculated based upon which two (2) factors? (Select 2)
- Flows per minute (FPM)
- Events per second (EPS)
Q122. True or False. If you have no better place to start hunting threats, start with a view of the global threat landscape and then drill down to a regional view, industry view and finally a view of the threats specific to your own organization.
Q123. True or False. Cloud-based storage or hosting providers are among the top sources of third-party breaches
Q124. Very provocative articles that come up in news feeds or Google searches are sometimes called “click-bait”. These articles often tempt you to link to other sites that can be infected with malware. What attack vector is used by these click-bait sites to get you to go to the really bad sites ?
- Malicious Links
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