Supply Chain Principles Coursera Quiz Answers – Networking Funda

Get All Weeks Supply Chain Principles Coursera Quiz Answers

Week 01: Supply Chain Principles Coursera Quiz Answers

Q1. The levels of suppliers within a supply chain are called:

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Tiers

Q2. For companies to be competitive, suppliers should be considered:

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Teammates

Q3. supply chain can best be described as:

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A network of many individual functions

Q4. The process for customers to return defective products is called:

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Reverse logistics

Q5. To support the sales forecast, the demand plan defines the needs:

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Inventory and resources

Q6. The demand planning function initiates requisitions for:

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Suppliers

Q7. Purchase requisitions define items that need to be purchased and are initiated by:

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Demand planning

Q8. Purchase orders are placed with suppliers by:

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Procurement

Q9. The time it takes for a supplier to deliver an item after the purchase order is placed is known as:

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Lead time

Q10. Which task is normally not performed by warehousing personnel?

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Paying suppliers

Q11. Identify the function that is performed by warehousing personnel when there is a demand for stored inventory

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Retrieving or picking

Q12. Automated material handling systems are designed to:

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Increase speed and accuracy

Q13. An example of a value-added function in a warehouse is:

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Cross-docking

Q14. The combination of personnel, processes, and systems to control inventory is called:

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Inventory management

Q15. Reduction of inventory is necessary to:

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Reduce operating costs

Q16. Routine maintenance, repairs, and warranty work are performed by:

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Service operations

Q17. Manufacturing can be defined as:

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Converting raw materials and other items into finished products

Q18. Manufacturing and other functions systems are generally hosted on the company-wide:

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Enterprise resource planning (ERP) system

Q19. One focus of the manufacturing process is to ensure that:

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Product quality is achieved

Q20. Reverse logistics could be a result of:

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Manufacturing products with a defect

Q21. The business of transportation is best defined by which of the following:

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Linking partners and facilities that are separated geographically in a supply chain

Q22. Intermodal transportation is best defined as:

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Using two or more modes to fulfill a delivery requirement

Q23. Inventory management takes place:

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Throughout the supply chain

Q24. What does inbound logistics support?

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The procurement of materials and goods from supplier locations

Q25. Which of the following is not recognized as a common mode of commercial transportation?

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Uber

Q26.Customer service can be defined as:

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The delivery of customer satisfaction

Q27. When does customer service focus on customers?

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Before, during, and after the sale

Q28. Define the role of customer service with logistics and transportation.

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To get products where they belong, on time

Q29. Customer service shares which goal with inventory management?

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Maintain inventory to control costs

Q30. Customer service personnel do not typically require the skills to:

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Prepare a detailed annual forecast

Week 02 Quiz Answers

Q1. Demand planning:

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Incorporates inputs to predict or approximate future customer demand

Q2. The number of potential buyers in a specific market for a given product or service will influence demand. If the market size:

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Decreases, can mean a lower quantity of potential buyers may be available to purchase products and services

Q3. Examples of risk events that have the potential to impact the demand plan are:

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Natural disasters, terrorism, and currency fluctuations

Q4. Demand management involves:

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Adjusting internal operations and plans to match actual customer demand

Q5. The two main types of demand are:

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Independent and dependent

Q6. A good demand planning process enables a company to link:

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Demand forecasting capabilities with supply planning capabilities

Q7. Which of the following are components of a demand plan?

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Demand forecast, locations, and timeframe

Q8. Which of the following describes a bill of material

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It lists items needed to assemble a finished product

Q9. Which replenishment method results in the same amount of product being ordered each time?

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Fixed order quantity

Q10. What type of forecasting technique emphasizes certain time periods over others?

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Weighted moving average

Q11. Which of the following is NOT an assumption used to calculate EOQ?

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A changing rate of demand over time

Q12. What is the benefit of using specialized demand planning software?

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There are built-in statistical models to forecast sales and demand

Q13. Procurement is defined as:

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The management of all of the processes involved in obtaining goods and services necessary for manufacturing and customer service.

Q14. Procurement supports the day-to-day operational requirements of a firm through:

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Acquiring raw materials, components, sub-assemblies, finished goods, maintenance and repair items, and services

Q15. Procurement and engineering personnel work together to achieve which goal?

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Identify the most technically capable suppliers for products or services

Q16. The procurement function is responsible for meeting the needs of internal and external customers by buying products and services from which sources of supply?

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Qualified and approved

Q17. Portfolio analysis involves classifying procured items or services into four quadrants, namely:

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Transaction quadrant, market quadrant, leverage quadrant, and critical quadrant

Q18. The portfolio matrix is used to identify which of the following?

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Take a price- or cost-analytic approach

Q19. TCO is primarily aimed at:

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Understanding the total cost of acquisition and administration, maintenance, and disposal of given items or services

Q20. Key supplier evaluation criteria include infrastructure and assets, which refer to:

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The age and quality of buildings and equipment

Q21. Domestic suppliers can serve:

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Any location within a country

Q22. Some of the issues that can arise when sourcing globally include:

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The long distances involved, make planning and logistics more difficult; currency fluctuations, which change the economics of a transaction; and different cultures and languages, which lead to misunderstandings.

Q23. Which of the following is not part of the negotiation planning process?

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Performing negotiations

Q24. What type of power features someone who is knowledgeable in a particular field?

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Expert power

Q25. Negotiation _________ are the actions used to carry out negotiation plans.

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Tactics

Q26. It is an ethical and professional responsibility for procurement professionals to:

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Adhere to laws, regulations, and trade agreements that apply to supply management, including international requirements

Q27. The four major concepts related to the legal aspects of contracts are:

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Indemnification, terms and conditions, breach of contract, and intellectual property

Week 03 Quiz Answers

Q1. Production control includes any _______ involved in handling materials, parts, assemblies, and subassemblies from their initial stage of production to the finished product stage in an organized and efficient manner.

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Equipment

Q2. What type of scheduling system assigns work to the earliest unassigned time slots in work centers?

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Forward

Q3. What part of an MRP record represents the time period when an item and its required quantity need to be available?

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Gross requirements

Q4. What part of an MRP record represents the item quantity that will be built every time a projected available balance falls below the next period’s gross requirement?

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Lot size

Q5. What planning system involves the breakdown of a company’s product mix and aggregates the capacity requirements of these more detailed plans at a work center level?

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Capacity Requirements Planning

Q6. Which type of manufacturing plan is used to produce a relatively constant amount of product in each planning period?

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Level production plan

Q7. A time-phased schedule system for individual product requirements that are not components, subsystems, or assemblies is called a

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Master production schedule

Q8. Which of the following is NOT typically part of a demand estimate?

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Historical demand

Service and spare parts requirements

Actual orders

Inventory level adjustment

Q9. Management decisions for improvements should be based primarily on which type of data?

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Objective

Q10. Which of the following is a good example of a quality performance metric for a manufacturing operation?

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Parts per million (PPM) defect level

Q11. Which performance metric category provides an indication of performance for accidents, incidents, and environmental issues?

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Safety

Q12. Which of the following is a good example of a manufacturing cost performance metric?

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Non-productive labor hours

Q13 .In addition to providing an indication of performance, metrics can also indicate other attributes of a company.

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Behavior

Q14. Multiple metrics at a summary level are often displayed or collected in a document referred to as a:

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Dashboard

Q15. What is a standardized delivery metric that is used in many industries?

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Customer orders are completed and delivered to a commitment

Q16. Which type of systems are used to improve the process of creating products?

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Process technology systems

Q17. Which choice best defines the purpose of equipment condition monitoring systems?

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Monitor conditions and warn operators when an operation is deteriorating or has deteriorated

Q18. -integrated manufacturing is used to:

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Integrate product design data and planning processes to manufacture products

Q19. Computer-aided design (CAD):

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Is a system that uses computers and complex graphics software as a design tool

Q20. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems benefit users by providing:

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A real-time view of key business processes with a company

Q21. In a manufacturing operation, conveyors are used to:

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Move and transport products between workstations

Q22. Identify one form of manufacturing automation that has helped to increase the speed of an operation, improve the accuracy of an operation, and is particularly useful in carrying out difficult tasks.

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Robotics

Q23. Cloud computing provides computer services users with:

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Access to a server to retrieve and update their data without purchasing licenses for different applications

Q24. What is the primary goal of the maintenance function?

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Retain and restore equipment to a specified condition to achieve its minimum useful life

Q25. Which choice best defines preventive maintenance?

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Predetermined, scheduled work to prevent a sudden failure

Q26. A functional failure is defined as:

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The inability of an item to meet a specified performance standard

Q27. Scheduled inspections are also called:

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On-condition maintenance

Q28. The total preventive maintenance (TPM) discipline is aimed at:

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Ensuring that equipment is kept in like-new condition so that it rarely breaks down

Q29. Which choice best defines corrective maintenance?

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Perform in response to a machine breakdown or failure

Week 04 Quiz Answers

Q1. Incoming goods are ____________________ in the receiving area.

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Checked for quality and quantity and then staged for further processing

Q2. When designing a dock system for receiving and shipping goods. The dock layout will most likely be ____________________.

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Scattered docks

Q3. As items are off-loaded from a delivery vehicle, receiving personnel should be checking for ____________________.

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Obvious shipping damage

Q4. ____________________ is a function often performed in receiving.

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Kitting for manufacturing

Q5. If received items appear to be damaged, receiving personnel should ____________________.

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Document the condition and move the items to a holding area for disposition

Q6. After the receipt of items, repackaging operations may be necessary to ____________________.

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Safeguard the items for processing or storage

Q7. Computerised and automated systems are utilised to ____________________.

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Enhance productivity, processing and inventory accuracy

Q8. A warehouse storage location system that uses the storage space in the most optimal fashion is referred to as a ____________________.

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Random system

Q9. that tend to favor using a random storage location system include ____________________.

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A relatively large product range

A relatively low number of pallets/cartons per product line

Irregularly shaped unit loads

Q10. Associates working in the stocking area are not involved with which of these stages?

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Loading delivery vehicles

Q11. Goods may be carried from the receiving area to a storage area using which type of materials handling equipment?

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Operator-Controlled Vehicles

Q12. The stocking process is defined as the physical movement of an item between which two areas?

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Receiving and storag

Q13. A forklift is an example of ____________________.

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An operator-controlled vehicle

Q14. A characteristic of a fixed location inventory storage system includes ____________________.

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Dedicated spaces where items are continually stored

Q15. The fixed storage approach provides ____________________.

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Optimal use of storage space

Q16. A key objective in order picking is to ____________________.

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Minimize movement of personnel

Q17. The purpose of kitting is to ____________________.

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Group individual items into one common package

Q18. Identify the picking method frequently used to reduce moment time.

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Common

Q19. Which of these is the principle in batch picking?

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Pick for several orders on each circulation and then sort them by customer order

Q20. After picking and consolidating items for shipment, the next step is to __________________.

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Package the items

Q21. Which statement is correct?

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The order-picking process focuses on the selection of goods to fulfill customer orders

Q22. Replenishment operations are best defined as ____________________.

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The activities associated with moving products from storage locations to the designated pick area

Q23. Consolidating the locations of fast-moving items ____________________.

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Can reduce required movements

Q24. When items have been batch-picked, the sorting activity ____________________.

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Separates one customer’s ordered items from other customer-picked stock-keeping units of the batch

Q25. Outbound vehicle consolidation is the process of ____________________.

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Collecting goods that are awaiting shipment for individual vehicle loads

Q26. Rapid loading systems are used ____________________.

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To dramatically reduce the time needed to load or unload a vehicle

Q27. Product characteristics (e.g., hazardous materials) may dictate the use of ____________________.

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A specific mode or carrier

Q28. While several factors are used to determine freight costs, the first consideration is generally ____________________.

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Weight

Q29. The package loading and shipping function ____________________.

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Ensures that outbound orders are placed on the correct delivery vehicle

Q30. Barcodes may be used during shipping process to ____________________.

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Generate shipping documentation

Week 05 Quiz Answers

Practice Quiz 01

Q1. Go to this website and review the characteristics of each of the car types http://www.up.com/customers/all/equipment/descriptions/index.htm Then, answer the following questions:

Flat Cars may be an appropriate medium for moving flat-screen televisions – True or False?

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True

Q2. Gondola cars may be appropriate for moving lumber? True or False

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True

Q3. Box cars may be appropriate for moving palletized loads of consumer products?

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True

Q4. Considering the Tropicana Unit Train,

which may transport 5,405 tons of juice per train. If an over the road trailer had a capacity to haul 10 tons of juice, how many trailers would be required to transport the equivalent tonnage of the Unit Train?

Practice Quiz 02

Q1. The Bunker Adjustment Factor compensates for fuel price fluctuations for which mode of transportation?

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Ships

Q2. Mileage (i.e., per mile) cost is an example of ____________________.

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Variable cost

Q3. FAK stands for ____________________.

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Freight-all-kind

Q4. In airfreight, application of the dimensional factor is used to ____________________.

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Calculate the theoretical weight

Q5. In the context of freight movement, AMC stands for ____________________.

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Miles covered

Q6. Pricing rates established for less-than-truckload carriers are used for ____________________.

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Differing freight characteristics

Q7 . Private fleets are most common in which method of transport?

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Motor

Q8. A key characteristic of a third party logistics provider is ____________________.

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To perform all or part of companies’ logistics functions

Q9. Companies maintain private fleets in order to ____________________.

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Maintain competitive pricing and convenience

Q10. For a fleet to classify as a captive private fleet, the primary business usually ____________________.

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Is something other than transportation

Q11. Which of these cannot issue their own bills of lading?

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Freight brokers

Q12. Which type of law or agency prohibits the German flag carrier Lufthansa from operating commercial flights from Dallas, Texas to Miami, Florida?

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Cabotage

Q13. The Uniform Commercial Code has been fully enacted in 49 of the 50 U.S. states except ____________________.

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Louisiana

Q14. UCC stands for ____________________.

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Uniform Commercial Code

Q15. What is the minimum age for driving an interstate truck?

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21

Q16. According to the Uniform Commercial Code, FOB stands for ____________________.

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Free on Board

Q17. A driver can drive up to 11 hours following 10 consecutive hours off-duty. Driver on-and off-duty hours are dictated by the ____________________.

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Hours of service rules

Q18. Together, which two sectors dominate global trade?

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Ocean, Air

Q19. A court is trying to decide the ownership of goods. Which document is the court most likely to rely on to prove ownership?

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Bill-of-lading

Q20. In international trade and transportation, international commercial terms are necessary to ____________________.

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Prevent confusion and unnecessary litigation

Q21. With freight on board terms, when does the ownership of goods transfer to the buyer?

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When goods are placed on ship designated by the buyer

Q22. The liability for and ownership of goods pass from the seller to the buyer in which of the 11 international commercial terms?

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None of the 11

Q23. Freight rates and tariffs are usually quoted on the basis of ____________________.

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Centweight

Q24. Which of these are not forms of modal optimizations?

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Containerized cargo

Q25. An standard carrier alpha code is a unique code assigned for ____________________.

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Freight carrier name identification

Q26. SCAC stands for ____________________.

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Standard carrier alpha code

Q27. In route optimization, the things personnel can change are called ____________________.

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Decision variables

Q28. Which four product characteristic criteria are used to determine the appropriate rate class?

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Density, storability, handling, and liability

Q29. The Bill-of-Lading, also known as an air waybill, does not establish ____________________.

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Transportation costs
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