Supply Chain Principles Coursera Quiz Answers – Networking Funda

Get All Weeks Supply Chain Principles Coursera Quiz Answers

Week 01: Supply Chain Principles Coursera Quiz Answers

Q1. The levels of suppliers within a supply chain are called:

  • Tiers
  • Ranks
  • Supports
  • Services

Q2. For companies to be competitive, suppliers should be considered:

  • Teammates
  • Adversaries
  • Unreliable
  • Unnecessary

Q3. supply chain can best be described as:

  • Negotiating with suppliers
  • One or two functions working together
  • A network of many individual functions
  • Choosing the best warehouse strategy

Q4. The process for customers to return defective products is called:

  • Backwards logistics
  • Reverse logistics
  • Forward logistics
  • Domestic logistics

Q5. To support the sales forecast, the demand plan defines the needs:

  • Transportation routes
  • Customers
  • Suppliers
  • Inventory and resources

Q6. The demand planning function initiates requisitions for:

  • Sales
  • Warehousing
  • Suppliers
  • Procurement

Q7. Purchase requisitions define items that need to be purchased and are initiated by:

  • Finance
  • Sales
  • Demand planning
  • Customers

Q8. Purchase orders are placed with suppliers by:

  • Customers
  • Warehousing
  • Procurement
  • Inventory management

Q9. The time it takes for a supplier to deliver an item after the purchase order is placed is known as:

  • Wait time
  • Queue time
  • Lead time
  • Picking time

Q10. Which task is normally not performed by warehousing personnel?

  • Paying suppliers
  • Unloading incoming items from trucks
  • Inspecting incoming items
  • Processing inventory within the warehouse

Q11. Identify the function that is performed by warehousing personnel when there is a demand for stored inventory

  • Packaging for shipment
  • Calling customer service
  • Retrieving or picking
  • Paying an invoice

Q12. Automated material handling systems are designed to:

  • Completely eliminate jobs
  • Increase speed and accuracy
  • Decrease reliability
  • Increase costs

Q13. An example of a value-added function in a warehouse is:

  • Receiving
  • Picking
  • Storing
  • Cross-docking

Q14. The combination of personnel, processes, and systems to control inventory is called:

  • Engineering
  • Inventory management
  • Demand planning
  • Systems management

Q15. Reduction of inventory is necessary to:

  • Justify additional suppliers
  • Decrease risks of stock-outs
  • Decrease competitiveness
  • Reduce operating costs

Q16. Routine maintenance, repairs, and warranty work are performed by:

  • Sales
  • Finance
  • Engineering
  • Service operations

Q17. Manufacturing can be defined as:

  • Converting raw materials and other items into finished products
  • Promoting and selling new products
  • Interfacing with suppliers
  • Planning shipments to customers

Q18. Manufacturing and other functions systems are generally hosted on the company-wide:

  • Customer feedback system
  • Transportation system
  • Enterprise resource planning (ERP) system
  • Procurement systems

Q19. One focus of the manufacturing process is to ensure that:

  • Suppliers ship materials on time
  • Product quality is achieved
  • Annual forecasts are completed on time
  • Delivery trucks are properly routed

Q20. Reverse logistics could be a result of:

  • Poor forecasting
  • Inadequate staffing
  • Choosing an expensive shipper
  • Manufacturing products with a defect

Q21. The business of transportation is best defined by which of the following:

  • Selection of the fastest mode, regardless of cost
  • The use of planes as the preferred mode
  • Linking partners and facilities that are separated geographically in a supply chain
  • Choice of the least expensive mode

Q22. Intermodal transportation is best defined as:

  • Choosing the least expensive carrier
  • Interstate trucking
  • Using two or more modes to fulfill a delivery requirement
  • Container shipping

Q23. Inventory management takes place:

  • Only in warehouses
  • After customers receive shipments
  • Only on expensive items
  • Throughout the supply chain

Q24. What does inbound logistics support?

  • The procurement of materials and goods from supplier locations
  • Items within a regional boundary
  • Courier services
  • Delivery to a customer

Q25. Which of the following is not recognized as a common mode of commercial transportation?

  • Ocean
  • Air
  • Road
  • Uber

Q26.Customer service can be defined as:

  • Warranty extensions
  • Reverse logistics
  • Order takers and order entry
  • The delivery of customer satisfaction

Q27. When does customer service focus on customers?

  • After the warranty period ends
  • When there is a problem
  • During annual forecasting meetings
  • Before, during, and after the sale

Q28. Define the role of customer service with logistics and transportation.

  • To get products where they belong, on time
  • Use intermodal transportation for most shipments
  • Always demand the quickest mode without regard for cost
  • Customer service does not have a role in logistics and transportation

Q29. Customer service shares which goal with inventory management?

  • Measure picking accuracy
  • Maintain inventory to control costs
  • Ensure that all inventory in the warehouse is labeled
  • Customer service does not share a goal with inventory management

Q30. Customer service personnel do not typically require the skills to:

  • Address customer concerns
  • Effectively handle customer complaints
  • Communicate consistently
  • Prepare a detailed annual forecast

Week 02 Quiz Answers

Q1. Demand planning:

  • Incorporates inputs to predict or approximate future customer demand
  • Is very seldom practiced by companies
  • Only involves demand planners
  • Includes the steps and the process to arrive at estimates of profitability

Q2. The number of potential buyers in a specific market for a given product or service will influence demand. If the market size:

  • Decreases, can mean a higher quantity of potential buyers may be available to purchase products or services
  • Increases, can mean a lower quantity of potential buyers may be available to purchase products or services
  • Decreases, this can mean that no potential buyers are available to purchase a company’s products or services
  • Decreases, can mean a lower quantity of potential buyers may be available to purchase products and services

Q3. Examples of risk events that have the potential to impact the demand plan are:

  • Changes in management and leadership
  • Introduction of a new purchase requisition and purchase order process
  • Natural disasters, terrorism, and currency fluctuations
  • Internal organisational consolidation and changes

Q4. Demand management involves:

  • Adjusting internal operations and plans to match actual customer demand
  • Placing orders for products
  • Providing discounts to customers
  • Selling products to customers

Q5. The two main types of demand are:

  • Independent and dependent
  • Constant and fluctuating
  • Short-term and long-term
  • Known and unknown

Q6. A good demand planning process enables a company to link:

  • Unanticipated demand from customers
  • Reactions to changes in demand with warehouses
  • Demand forecasting capabilities with supply planning capabilities
  • Anticipated demand with financial charts

Q7. Which of the following are components of a demand plan?

  • Locations
  • Demand forecast, locations, and timeframe
  • Demand forecast
  • Timeframe or horizon

Q8. Which of the following describes a bill of material

  • It describes manufacturing schedules
  • It defines timeframes
  • It documents sales history
  • It lists items needed to assemble a finished product

Q9. Which replenishment method results in the same amount of product being ordered each time?

  • Moving average
  • Fixed order interval
  • Fixed order quantity
  • Safety stock

Q10. What type of forecasting technique emphasizes certain time periods over others?

  • Weighted moving average
  • Expert forecast
  • Linear regression
  • Simple moving average

Q11. Which of the following is NOT an assumption used to calculate EOQ?

  • A constant and known replenishment
  • A constant cost that is independent of the order quantity or time
  • The satisfaction of all demand
  • A changing rate of demand over time

Q12. What is the benefit of using specialized demand planning software?

  • It enables software companies to increase sales
  • It is better for predicting causal forecasts
  • There are built-in statistical models to forecast sales and demand
  • It eliminates the need for demand planning personnel

Q13. Procurement is defined as:

  • A process that involves the acquisition of goods only.
  • A process that involves the management of planning and manufacturing operations.
  • The management of all of the processes involved in obtaining goods and services necessary for manufacturing and customer service.
  • A process that involves the management of logistics functions.

Q14. Procurement supports the day-to-day operational requirements of a firm through:

  • Paying invoices early
  • Postponing supplier payments
  • Developing hiring plans
  • Acquiring raw materials, components, sub-assemblies, finished goods, maintenance and repair items, and services

Q15. Procurement and engineering personnel work together to achieve which goal?

  • Identify the most technically capable suppliers for products or services
  • Hire manufacturing employees
  • Provide information about procured inbound items to update accounts payable systems
  • Evaluate marketing programs

Q16. The procurement function is responsible for meeting the needs of internal and external customers by buying products and services from which sources of supply?

  • International suppliers
  • Qualified and approved
  • The most expensive
  • Any available source

Q17. Portfolio analysis involves classifying procured items or services into four quadrants, namely:

  • Transaction quadrant, market quadrant, leverage quadrant, and strategic quadrant
  • Transaction quadrant, supplier quadrant, market quadrant, and critical quadrant
  • Transaction quadrant, market quadrant, quality quadrant, and leverage quadrant
  • Transaction quadrant, market quadrant, leverage quadrant, and critical quadrant

Q18. The portfolio matrix is used to identify which of the following?

  • Purchases from global suppliers only
  • Slow-paying customers
  • Nonperforming suppliers
  • Take a price- or cost-analytic approach

Q19. TCO is primarily aimed at:

  • Identifying the lowest price for goods and services
  • Understanding the total cost of acquisition and administration, maintenance, and disposal of given items or services
  • Understanding the financial strengths of supplier companies
  • Identifying poor supplier quality issues and developing quality programs

Q20. Key supplier evaluation criteria include infrastructure and assets, which refer to:

  • The age and quality of buildings and equipment
  • Where suppliers are located in relation to purchasing firms and the relative advantages and disadvantages of those locations
  • The quality of products and services
  • The amount of attention paid to general working conditions

Q21. Domestic suppliers can serve:

  • Multiple regions
  • The countries within a single region
  • Any location within a country
  • Only a limited number of sites or buying locations

Q22. Some of the issues that can arise when sourcing globally include:

  • The long distances involved, make planning and logistics more difficult; currency fluctuations, change the economics of a transaction; and different personalities, lead to misunderstandings.
  • The long distances involved, make planning and logistics more difficult; stable currencies, which change the economics of a transaction; and different cultures and languages, which lead to misunderstandings.
  • The long distances involved, make planning and logistics more difficult; currency fluctuations, which change the economics of a transaction; and different cultures and languages, which lead to misunderstandings.
  • The long distances involved, make planning and logistics impossible; currency fluctuations, which change the economics of a transaction; and different cultures and languages, which lead to misunderstandings.

Q23. Which of the following is not part of the negotiation planning process?

  • Trying to understand other parties’ needs
  • Determining who will participate in negotiations
  • Performing negotiations
  • Identifying facts versus issue

Q24. What type of power features someone who is knowledgeable in a particular field?

  • Referent power
  • Legitimate power
  • Informational power
  • Expert power

Q25. Negotiation _________ are the actions used to carry out negotiation plans.

  • Concessions
  • Tactics
  • Ranges
  • Powers

Q26. It is an ethical and professional responsibility for procurement professionals to:

  • Adhere to laws, regulations, and trade agreements that apply to supply management, including international requirements
  • Develop suppliers
  • Acquire property, plant or equipment, goods, works, and services at the lowest cost
  • Understand all aspects of company law, not only those that pertain to procurement

Q27. The four major concepts related to the legal aspects of contracts are:

  • Indemnification, reciprocity, breach of contract, and intellectual property
  • Indemnification, terms and conditions, breach of contract, and low-cost sourcing
  • Obligations, terms and conditions, breach of contract, and intellectual property
  • Indemnification, terms and conditions, breach of contract, and intellectual property

Week 03 Quiz Answers

Q1. Production control includes any _______ involved in handling materials, parts, assemblies, and subassemblies from their initial stage of production to the finished product stage in an organized and efficient manner.

  • Activity
  • Cost
  • Paperwork
  • Equipment

Q2. What type of scheduling system assigns work to the earliest unassigned time slots in work centers?

  • Infinite
  • Backward
  • Finite
  • Forward

Q3. What part of an MRP record represents the time period when an item and its required quantity need to be available?

  • Projected available balance
  • Gross requirements
  • Planned order release
  • Planned order receipt

Q4. What part of an MRP record represents the item quantity that will be built every time a projected available balance falls below the next period’s gross requirement?

  • Projected available balance
  • Gross requirement
  • Safety stock quantity
  • Lot size

Q5. What planning system involves the breakdown of a company’s product mix and aggregates the capacity requirements of these more detailed plans at a work center level?

  • Lot size
  • Capacity Requirements Planning
  • Safety stock quantity
  • Projected available balance

Q6. Which type of manufacturing plan is used to produce a relatively constant amount of product in each planning period?

  • Split production plan
  • Level production plan
  • Chase Production plan

Q7. A time-phased schedule system for individual product requirements that are not components, subsystems, or assemblies is called a

  • Demand forecast
  • Master production schedule
  • Materials requirement plan
  • Final assembly schedule

Q8. Which of the following is NOT typically part of a demand estimate?

  • Historical demand
  • Service and spare parts requirements
  • Actual orders
  • Inventory level adjustment

Q9. Management decisions for improvements should be based primarily on which type of data?

  • Subjective
  • Objective
  • Sporadic
  • Short-term

Q10. Which of the following is a good example of a quality performance metric for a manufacturing operation?

  • New sales
  • Parts per million (PPM) defect level
  • Average total cost per unit
  • Procurement overhead

Q11. Which performance metric category provides an indication of performance for accidents, incidents, and environmental issues?

  • Suppliers
  • Finance
  • Safety
  • Support

Q12. Which of the following is a good example of a manufacturing cost performance metric?

  • Safety infractions
  • Machine readiness
  • On-time delivery
  • Non-productive labor hours

Q13 .In addition to providing an indication of performance, metrics can also indicate other attributes of a company.

  • Earnings
  • Profitability
  • Behavior
  • Trust

Q14. Multiple metrics at a summary level are often displayed or collected in a document referred to as a:

  • Dashboard
  • Display board
  • Accelerator
  • White paper

Q15. What is a standardized delivery metric that is used in many industries?

  • Customer orders are completed and delivered to a commitment
  • Non-conformance charges
  • First-pass yield
  • Warranty return rates

Q16. Which type of systems are used to improve the process of creating products?

  • Relational database systems
  • Presentation systems
  • Process technology systems
  • Word processing systems

Q17. Which choice best defines the purpose of equipment condition monitoring systems?

  • Detect equipment and operator productivity
  • Monitor return on investment
  • Monitor setups efficiency
  • Monitor conditions and warn operators when an operation is deteriorating or has deteriorated

Q18. -integrated manufacturing is used to:

  • Monitor equipment setups and changeovers
  • Run manufacturing business systems
  • Integrate product design data and plant maintenance improvements
  • Integrate product design data and planning processes to manufacture products

Q19. Computer-aided design (CAD):

  • Decreases the speed and flexibility of the design process
  • Plans machine preventive maintenance programs.
  • Is a system that uses computers and complex graphics software as a design tool
  • Integrates machine run-time efficiency

Q20. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems benefit users by providing:

  • The control system for equipment to make decisions
  • A tracking system for customer service representatives
  • The systems for placing purchase orders
  • A real-time view of key business processes with a company

Q21. In a manufacturing operation, conveyors are used to:

  • Offload heavy containers
  • Move only small quantities of items
  • Manufacture products
  • Move and transport products between workstations

Q22. Identify one form of manufacturing automation that has helped to increase the speed of an operation, improve the accuracy of an operation, and is particularly useful in carrying out difficult tasks.

  • CAD
  • ERP
  • 3D printing
  • Robotics

Q23. Cloud computing provides computer services users with:

  • Access to a server to retrieve and update their data without purchasing licenses for different applications
  • Collaboration across many individuals in a company
  • Storage and processing of data in third-party data centers
  • The ability to store and process their data in a third-party data center

Q24. What is the primary goal of the maintenance function?

  • Plan activities and work tasks to mitigate equipment failure
  • Destroy equipment once it has reached its maximum useful life
  • Retain and restore equipment to a specified condition to achieve its minimum useful life
  • Retain and restore equipment to an unspecified condition to achieve its maximum useful life

Q25. Which choice best defines preventive maintenance?

  • Predetermined, scheduled work to prevent a sudden failure
  • Maintenance of equipment after a failure
  • Routine maintenance to guarantee that equipment will break down
  • Ignoring maintenance requirements so that equipment will fail

Q26. A functional failure is defined as:

  • The inability of an item to meet a specified performance standard
  • The inability of an item to meet an unspecified performance standard
  • The ability of an item to meet an unspecified performance standard
  • The ability of an item to meet a specified performance standard

Q27. Scheduled inspections are also called:

  • Outsourced maintenance
  • On-condition maintenance
  • Supplier-managed maintenance
  • Run-to-failure maintenance

Q28. The total preventive maintenance (TPM) discipline is aimed at:

  • Ensuring that equipment is only in new condition so the machinery never breaks down
  • Eliminating the need for maintenance personnel to be involved in maintaining the equipment
  • Ensuring that equipment is kept in like-new condition so that it rarely breaks down
  • Ensuring that equipment is only maintained by maintenance personnel so the machinery rarely breaks down

Q29. Which choice best defines corrective maintenance?

  • Maintenance prevention during machine design
  • Perform in response to a machine breakdown or failure
  • Planned maintenance
  • Maintenance and operator skill training

Week 04 Quiz Answers

Q1. Incoming goods are ____________________ in the receiving area.

  • Picked against customer orders
  • Stored for relatively lengthy periods of time
  • Stored in specialty storage
  • Checked for quality and quantity and then staged for further processing

Q2. When designing a dock system for receiving and shipping goods. The dock layout will most likely be ____________________.

  • Scattered docks
  • Separated docks
  • Combination docks
  • Separated or scattered docks

Q3. As items are off-loaded from a delivery vehicle, receiving personnel should be checking for ____________________.

  • Sufficient warehouse space
  • Obvious shipping damage
  • Condition of the delivery vehicle
  • Required need dates

Q4. ____________________ is a function often performed in receiving.

  • Cross-docking
  • Kitting for manufacturing
  • Placing the items in storage
  • Preparing out-bound shipping paperwork

Q5. If received items appear to be damaged, receiving personnel should ____________________.

  • Repackage the items
  • Document the condition and move the items to a holding area for disposition
  • Attempt to correct the damage
  • Accept the items if the damage is minor

Q6. After the receipt of items, repackaging operations may be necessary to ____________________.

  • Safeguard the items for processing or storage
  • Cover-up item contamination
  • Improve item appearance
  • Correct shipping damage

Q7. Computerised and automated systems are utilised to ____________________.

  • Promote market awareness
  • Enhance productivity, processing and inventory accuracy
  • Compensate for lack of personnel skills
  • Eliminate errors

Q8. A warehouse storage location system that uses the storage space in the most optimal fashion is referred to as a ____________________.

  • Popularity storage stock system
  • Random system
  • Forward and reserve system
  • Dedicated system

Q9. that tend to favor using a random storage location system include ____________________.

  • A relatively large product range
  • A relatively low number of pallets/cartons per product line
  • Irregularly shaped unit loads
  • All of the Above

Q10. Associates working in the stocking area are not involved with which of these stages?

  • Rearranging product locations
  • Loading delivery vehicles
  • Restocking shelves

Q11. Goods may be carried from the receiving area to a storage area using which type of materials handling equipment?

  • Dock levelers
  • Operator-Controlled Vehicles
  • Gravity flow racks
  • High-rise order picker

Q12. The stocking process is defined as the physical movement of an item between which two areas?

  • Storage and shipping
  • Receiving and shipping
  • Shipping and Transportation
  • Receiving and storage

Q13. A forklift is an example of ____________________.

  • A specialized type of trailer
  • An operator-controlled vehicle
  • An Automated Guidance Vehicle
  • A conveyor

Q14. A characteristic of a fixed location inventory storage system includes ____________________.

  • Dedicated spaces where items are continually stored
  • Large variations between minimum and maximum stock levels
  • Product ranges that are not homogeneous
  • Small quantities of pallets per product line

Q15. The fixed storage approach provides ____________________.

  • For only unit loads with an irregular shapes
  • Item-specific slots or lanes
  • Less accuracy of inventory records
  • Optimal use of storage space

Q16. A key objective in order picking is to ____________________.

  • Carry at least one of each of the items stocked in the warehouse in a separate picking area
  • Use the least number of people in the warehouse
  • Minimize movement of personnel
  • Reduce honeycombing

Q17. The purpose of kitting is to ____________________.

  • Store items more easily
  • Group individual items into one common package
  • Save storage space
  • Fulfill metrics requirements

Q18. Identify the picking method frequently used to reduce moment time.

  • Backlog
  • Shift
  • Common
  • Popularity

Q19. Which of these is the principle in batch picking?

  • Consolidate required items by batching at receiving
  • Pick for several orders on each circulation and then sort them by customer order
  • Consolidate items to reduce transportation costs
  • Pick one complete order on each circulation

Q20. After picking and consolidating items for shipment, the next step is to __________________.

  • Notify the shipper to arrange pick-up
  • Pack the items
  • Notify the customer about the pending shipment
  • Package the items

Q21. Which statement is correct?

  • Damage verification is not important when picking items
  • Picking operations are best done on the shipping dock
  • The order-picking process focuses on the selection of goods to fulfill customer orders
  • It is best to package products as soon as they are picked

Q22. Replenishment operations are best defined as ____________________.

  • The activities associated with moving products from storage locations to the designated pick area
  • An inventory control technique
  • The second stage of receiving
  • Necessary for medical device manufacturers

Q23. Consolidating the locations of fast-moving items ____________________.

  • Can reduce required movements
  • Supports the use of forklifts
  • Reduces inventory
  • Is required with pallet racks

Q24. When items have been batch-picked, the sorting activity ____________________.

  • Combines products that have been picked to fill a unique customer order
  • Groups specific, individual items together in the container for the consumer
  • Ensures that the stock-keeping unit is protected from damage during delivery to the customer
  • Separates one customer’s ordered items from other customer-picked stock-keeping units of the batch

Q25. Outbound vehicle consolidation is the process of ____________________.

  • Collecting goods that are awaiting shipment for individual vehicle loads
  • Weighing loads to determine shipping charges
  • Ensuring that the customer’s order is placed on the correct delivery vehicle
  • Applying customer-specific labels, price tags, and barcodes to packages

Q26. Rapid loading systems are used ____________________.

  • Only in large warehouses
  • To dramatically reduce the time needed to load or unload a vehicle
  • Where there are space limitations or excessive space costs
  • Where there are no operators available to load vehicles

Q27. Product characteristics (e.g., hazardous materials) may dictate the use of ____________________.

  • A specific mode or carrier
  • Combined docks
  • Advanced shipping notice
  • Conveyors

Q28. While several factors are used to determine freight costs, the first consideration is generally ____________________.

  • Cube
  • Distance
  • Transportation mode
  • Weight

Q29. The package loading and shipping function ____________________.

  • Is always facilitated by the use of conveyors
  • Includes item receipt from suppliers
  • Includes item kitting
  • Ensures that outbound orders are placed on the correct delivery vehicle

Q30. Barcodes may be used during shipping process to ____________________.

  • Seal boxes
  • Check item quality
  • Generate shipping documentation
  • Assign truck parking

Week 05 Quiz Answers

Practice Quiz 01

Q1. Go to this website and review the characteristics of each of the car types Then, answer the following questions:

Flat Cars may be an appropriate medium for moving flat-screen televisions – True or False?

  • True
  • False

Q2. Gondola cars may be appropriate for moving lumber? True or False

  • True
  • False

Q3. Box cars may be appropriate for moving palletized loads of consumer products?

  • True
  • False

Q4. Considering the Tropicana Unit Train,

which may transport 5,405 tons of juice per train. If an over the road trailer had a capacity to haul 10 tons of juice, how many trailers would be required to transport the equivalent tonnage of the Unit Train?

Practice Quiz 02

Q1. The Bunker Adjustment Factor compensates for fuel price fluctuations for which mode of transportation?

  • Motor Carrier
  • Pipeline
  • Ships
  • Rail

Q2. Mileage (i.e., per mile) cost is an example of ____________________.

  • Average cost
  • Total cost
  • Variable cost
  • Fixed cost

Q3. FAK stands for ____________________.

  • Fully automated kinetics
  • Fully automated knapsacks
  • Freight-all-kinds
  • Freight and knowing

Q4. In airfreight, application of the dimensional factor is used to ____________________.

  • Calculate the theoretical weight
  • Airport landing fees
  • Labor to unload the cargo
  • File the flight plan

Q5. In the context of freight movement, AMC stands for ____________________.

  • Movement covered
  • Miles covered
  • Absolute maximum charge
  • Absolute minimum charge

Q6. Pricing rates established for less-than-truckload carriers are used for ____________________.

  • Standard cargo
  • Differing freight characteristics
  • Mileage
  • Seasonal adjustments

Q7 . Private fleets are most common in which method of transport?

  • Rail
  • Pipeline
  • Ocean
  • Motor

Q8. A key characteristic of a third party logistics provider is ____________________.

  • Fleet management
  • To perform all or part of companies’ logistics functions
  • To provide motor carrier maintenance
  • To schedule air cargo only

Q9. Companies maintain private fleets in order to ____________________.

  • Advertise their name on the trailer
  • Lease vehicles for profit
  • Dominate the transportation industry
  • Maintain competitive pricing and convenience

Q10. For a fleet to classify as a captive private fleet, the primary business usually ____________________.

  • Maintains 500 trailers
  • Performs its own maintenance
  • Is something other than transportation
  • Has 50 drivers

Q11. Which of these cannot issue their own bills of lading?

  • Freight forwarders
  • Freight brokers
  • Independent carriers
  • Third-party logistics providers

Q12. Which type of law or agency prohibits the German flag carrier Lufthansa from operating commercial flights from Dallas, Texas to Miami, Florida?

  • U.S. Coast Guard
  • Cabotage
  • U.S. National Transportation Safety Board
  • U.S. Customs

Q13. The Uniform Commercial Code has been fully enacted in 49 of the 50 U.S. states except ____________________.

  • South Carolina
  • Louisiana
  • New Mexico
  • California

Q14. UCC stands for ____________________.

  • United Committee on Charges
  • Universal Contract Carrier
  • United Contract Carriage
  • Uniform Commercial Code

Q15. What is the minimum age for driving an interstate truck?

  • 25
  • 32
  • 18
  • 21

Q16. According to the Uniform Commercial Code, FOB stands for ____________________.

  • Free on Board
  • Freight on Board
  • Freight on Balance
  • Free on Basis

Q17. A driver can drive up to 11 hours following 10 consecutive hours off-duty. Driver on-and off-duty hours are dictated by the ____________________.

  • Hours of service rules
  • International Commercial Terms
  • Uniform Commercial Code
  • Carrier contracts

Q18. Together, which two sectors dominate global trade?

  • Ocean, Pipeline
  • Rail, Pipeline
  • Motor Carrier, Rail
  • Ocean, Air

Q19. A court is trying to decide the ownership of goods. Which document is the court most likely to rely on to prove ownership?

  • Bill-of-lading
  • Commercial invoice
  • Packing slip
  • Certificate of insurance

Q20. In international trade and transportation, international commercial terms are necessary to ____________________.

  • Assure the seller always pays transportation costs
  • Limit imports
  • Promote U.S. exports to France
  • Prevent confusion and unnecessary litigation

Q21. With freight on board terms, when does the ownership of goods transfer to the buyer?

  • When goods are placed on ship designated by the seller
  • When goods are at the buyer’s facility
  • When goods are placed on ship designated by the buyer
  • When goods are at the seller’s facility

Q22. The liability for and ownership of goods pass from the seller to the buyer in which of the 11 international commercial terms?

  • Carriage paid to
  • Cost, insurance, freight and free on board
  • None of the 11
  • All 11

Q23. Freight rates and tariffs are usually quoted on the basis of ____________________.

  • Milweight
  • Maxweight
  • Decweight
  • Centweight

Q24. Which of these are not forms of modal optimizations?

  • Drop trailers
  • Merge-in transit
  • Pooled distribution
  • Containerized cargo

Q25. An standard carrier alpha code is a unique code assigned for ____________________.

  • Freight carrier name identification
  • Freight carrier billing addresses
  • Determining modal optimization
  • Determining pricing for tariffs

Q26. SCAC stands for ____________________.

  • Short-term acceptable carrier
  • Standard carrier acceptable carriage
  • Standard carrier alpha code
  • Short carriage acceptable carrier

Q27. In route optimization, the things personnel can change are called ____________________.

  • Decision variables
  • Resources
  • Constraints
  • Objectives

Q28. Which four product characteristic criteria are used to determine the appropriate rate class?

  • Density, storability, handling, and liability
  • Handling, shelf-life, manufacturing date, and weight
  • Hazards, density, volume, and weight
  • Packaging, handling, volume, and hazards

Q29. The Bill-of-Lading, also known as an air waybill, does not establish ____________________.

  • Evidence to resolve disputes
  • Transportation costs
  • Ownership of goods
  • Carrier receipt of goods
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