Get All Weeks Supply Chain Principles Coursera Quiz Answers
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Week 01: Supply Chain Principles Coursera Quiz Answers
Q1. The levels of suppliers within a supply chain are called:
[expand title=View Answer]Tiers [/expand]
Q2. For companies to be competitive, suppliers should be considered:
[expand title=View Answer] Teammates [/expand]
Q3. supply chain can best be described as:
[expand title=View Answer] A network of many individual functions [/expand]
Q4. The process for customers to return defective products is called:
[expand title=View Answer] Reverse logistics [/expand]
Q5. To support the sales forecast, the demand plan defines the needs:
[expand title=View Answer] Inventory and resources[/expand]
Q6. The demand planning function initiates requisitions for:
[expand title=View Answer] Suppliers [/expand]
Q7. Purchase requisitions define items that need to be purchased and are initiated by:
[expand title=View Answer] Demand planning [/expand]
Q8. Purchase orders are placed with suppliers by:
[expand title=View Answer]Procurement [/expand]
Q9. The time it takes for a supplier to deliver an item after the purchase order is placed is known as:
[expand title=View Answer] Lead time [/expand]
Q10. Which task is normally not performed by warehousing personnel?
[expand title=View Answer] Paying suppliers [/expand]
Q11. Identify the function that is performed by warehousing personnel when there is a demand for stored inventory
[expand title=View Answer] Retrieving or picking[/expand]
Q12. Automated material handling systems are designed to:
[expand title=View Answer] Increase speed and accuracy [/expand]
Q13. An example of a value-added function in a warehouse is:
[expand title=View Answer] Cross-docking[/expand]
Q14. The combination of personnel, processes, and systems to control inventory is called:
[expand title=View Answer] Inventory management [/expand]
Q15. Reduction of inventory is necessary to:
[expand title=View Answer] Reduce operating costs [/expand]
Q16. Routine maintenance, repairs, and warranty work are performed by:
[expand title=View Answer] Service operations[/expand]
Q17. Manufacturing can be defined as:
[expand title=View Answer] Converting raw materials and other items into finished products[/expand]
Q18. Manufacturing and other functions systems are generally hosted on the company-wide:
[expand title=View Answer] Enterprise resource planning (ERP) system[/expand]
Q19. One focus of the manufacturing process is to ensure that:
[expand title=View Answer]Product quality is achieved[/expand]
Q20. Reverse logistics could be a result of:
[expand title=View Answer]Manufacturing products with a defect[/expand]
Q21. The business of transportation is best defined by which of the following:
[expand title=View Answer]Linking partners and facilities that are separated geographically in a supply chain[/expand]
Q22. Intermodal transportation is best defined as:
[expand title=View Answer] Using two or more modes to fulfill a delivery requirement[/expand]
Q23. Inventory management takes place:
[expand title=View Answer]Throughout the supply chain[/expand]
Q24. What does inbound logistics support?
[expand title=View Answer] The procurement of materials and goods from supplier locations [/expand]
Q25. Which of the following is not recognized as a common mode of commercial transportation?
[expand title=View Answer] Uber [/expand]
Q26.Customer service can be defined as:
[expand title=View Answer] The delivery of customer satisfaction[/expand]
Q27. When does customer service focus on customers?
[expand title=View Answer] Before, during, and after the sale[/expand]
Q28. Define the role of customer service with logistics and transportation.
[expand title=View Answer] To get products where they belong, on time [/expand]
Q29. Customer service shares which goal with inventory management?
[expand title=View Answer] Maintain inventory to control costs[/expand]
Q30. Customer service personnel do not typically require the skills to:
[expand title=View Answer] Prepare a detailed annual forecast [/expand]
Week 02 Quiz Answers
Q1. Demand planning:
[expand title=View Answer] Incorporates inputs to predict or approximate future customer demand[/expand]
Q2. The number of potential buyers in a specific market for a given product or service will influence demand. If the market size:
[expand title=View Answer] Decreases, can mean a lower quantity of potential buyers may be available to purchase products and services[/expand]
Q3. Examples of risk events that have the potential to impact the demand plan are:
[expand title=View Answer] Natural disasters, terrorism, and currency fluctuations[/expand]
Q4. Demand management involves:
[expand title=View Answer] Adjusting internal operations and plans to match actual customer demand[/expand]
Q5. The two main types of demand are:
[expand title=View Answer] Independent and dependent [/expand]
Q6. A good demand planning process enables a company to link:
[expand title=View Answer] Demand forecasting capabilities with supply planning capabilities[/expand]
Q7. Which of the following are components of a demand plan?
[expand title=View Answer] Demand forecast, locations, and timeframe[/expand]
Q8. Which of the following describes a bill of material
[expand title=View Answer]It lists items needed to assemble a finished product [/expand]
Q9. Which replenishment method results in the same amount of product being ordered each time?
[expand title=View Answer] Fixed order quantity [/expand]
Q10. What type of forecasting technique emphasizes certain time periods over others?
[expand title=View Answer] Weighted moving average [/expand]
Q11. Which of the following is NOT an assumption used to calculate EOQ?
[expand title=View Answer] A changing rate of demand over time [/expand]
Q12. What is the benefit of using specialized demand planning software?
[expand title=View Answer]There are built-in statistical models to forecast sales and demand [/expand]
Q13. Procurement is defined as:
[expand title=View Answer] The management of all of the processes involved in obtaining goods and services necessary for manufacturing and customer service.[/expand]
Q14. Procurement supports the day-to-day operational requirements of a firm through:
[expand title=View Answer] Acquiring raw materials, components, sub-assemblies, finished goods, maintenance and repair items, and services[/expand]
Q15. Procurement and engineering personnel work together to achieve which goal?
[expand title=View Answer] Identify the most technically capable suppliers for products or services [/expand]
Q16. The procurement function is responsible for meeting the needs of internal and external customers by buying products and services from which sources of supply?
[expand title=View Answer] Qualified and approved [/expand]
Q17. Portfolio analysis involves classifying procured items or services into four quadrants, namely:
[expand title=View Answer] Transaction quadrant, market quadrant, leverage quadrant, and critical quadrant[/expand]
Q18. The portfolio matrix is used to identify which of the following?
[expand title=View Answer] Take a price- or cost-analytic approach[/expand]
Q19. TCO is primarily aimed at:
[expand title=View Answer] Understanding the total cost of acquisition and administration, maintenance, and disposal of given items or services [/expand]
Q20. Key supplier evaluation criteria include infrastructure and assets, which refer to:
[expand title=View Answer]The age and quality of buildings and equipment [/expand]
Q21. Domestic suppliers can serve:
[expand title=View Answer] Any location within a country [/expand]
Q22. Some of the issues that can arise when sourcing globally include:
[expand title=View Answer] The long distances involved, make planning and logistics more difficult; currency fluctuations, which change the economics of a transaction; and different cultures and languages, which lead to misunderstandings. [/expand]
Q23. Which of the following is not part of the negotiation planning process?
[expand title=View Answer] Performing negotiations[/expand]
Q24. What type of power features someone who is knowledgeable in a particular field?
[expand title=View Answer]Expert power [/expand]
Q25. Negotiation _________ are the actions used to carry out negotiation plans.
[expand title=View Answer] Tactics [/expand]
Q26. It is an ethical and professional responsibility for procurement professionals to:
[expand title=View Answer] Adhere to laws, regulations, and trade agreements that apply to supply management, including international requirements[/expand]
Q27. The four major concepts related to the legal aspects of contracts are:
[expand title=View Answer] Indemnification, terms and conditions, breach of contract, and intellectual property[/expand]
Week 03 Quiz Answers
Q1. Production control includes any _______ involved in handling materials, parts, assemblies, and subassemblies from their initial stage of production to the finished product stage in an organized and efficient manner.
[expand title=View Answer] Equipment [/expand]
Q2. What type of scheduling system assigns work to the earliest unassigned time slots in work centers?
[expand title=View Answer] Forward [/expand]
Q3. What part of an MRP record represents the time period when an item and its required quantity need to be available?
[expand title=View Answer] Gross requirements[/expand]
Q4. What part of an MRP record represents the item quantity that will be built every time a projected available balance falls below the next period’s gross requirement?
[expand title=View Answer] Lot size[/expand]
Q5. What planning system involves the breakdown of a company’s product mix and aggregates the capacity requirements of these more detailed plans at a work center level?
[expand title=View Answer]Capacity Requirements Planning [/expand]
Q6. Which type of manufacturing plan is used to produce a relatively constant amount of product in each planning period?
[expand title=View Answer] Level production plan [/expand]
Q7. A time-phased schedule system for individual product requirements that are not components, subsystems, or assemblies is called a
[expand title=View Answer] Master production schedule[/expand]
Q8. Which of the following is NOT typically part of a demand estimate?
[expand title=View Answer]
Historical demand
Service and spare parts requirements
Actual orders
Inventory level adjustment
[/expand]
Q9. Management decisions for improvements should be based primarily on which type of data?
[expand title=View Answer] Objective [/expand]
Q10. Which of the following is a good example of a quality performance metric for a manufacturing operation?
[expand title=View Answer]Parts per million (PPM) defect level [/expand]
Q11. Which performance metric category provides an indication of performance for accidents, incidents, and environmental issues?
[expand title=View Answer] Safety [/expand]
Q12. Which of the following is a good example of a manufacturing cost performance metric?
[expand title=View Answer] Non-productive labor hours [/expand]
Q13 .In addition to providing an indication of performance, metrics can also indicate other attributes of a company.
[expand title=View Answer] Behavior [/expand]
Q14. Multiple metrics at a summary level are often displayed or collected in a document referred to as a:
[expand title=View Answer] Dashboard [/expand]
Q15. What is a standardized delivery metric that is used in many industries?
[expand title=View Answer] Customer orders are completed and delivered to a commitment [/expand]
Q16. Which type of systems are used to improve the process of creating products?
[expand title=View Answer]Process technology systems [/expand]
Q17. Which choice best defines the purpose of equipment condition monitoring systems?
[expand title=View Answer] Monitor conditions and warn operators when an operation is deteriorating or has deteriorated[/expand]
Q18. -integrated manufacturing is used to:
[expand title=View Answer]Integrate product design data and planning processes to manufacture products [/expand]
Q19. Computer-aided design (CAD):
[expand title=View Answer]Is a system that uses computers and complex graphics software as a design tool [/expand]
Q20. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems benefit users by providing:
[expand title=View Answer] A real-time view of key business processes with a company[/expand]
Q21. In a manufacturing operation, conveyors are used to:
[expand title=View Answer]Move and transport products between workstations [/expand]
Q22. Identify one form of manufacturing automation that has helped to increase the speed of an operation, improve the accuracy of an operation, and is particularly useful in carrying out difficult tasks.
[expand title=View Answer] Robotics [/expand]
Q23. Cloud computing provides computer services users with:
[expand title=View Answer]Access to a server to retrieve and update their data without purchasing licenses for different applications [/expand]
Q24. What is the primary goal of the maintenance function?
[expand title=View Answer] Retain and restore equipment to a specified condition to achieve its minimum useful life [/expand]
Q25. Which choice best defines preventive maintenance?
[expand title=View Answer] Predetermined, scheduled work to prevent a sudden failure[/expand]
Q26. A functional failure is defined as:
[expand title=View Answer] The inability of an item to meet a specified performance standard[/expand]
Q27. Scheduled inspections are also called:
[expand title=View Answer] On-condition maintenance [/expand]
Q28. The total preventive maintenance (TPM) discipline is aimed at:
[expand title=View Answer] Ensuring that equipment is kept in like-new condition so that it rarely breaks down [/expand]
Q29. Which choice best defines corrective maintenance?
[expand title=View Answer] Perform in response to a machine breakdown or failure [/expand]
Week 04 Quiz Answers
Q1. Incoming goods are ____________________ in the receiving area.
[expand title=View Answer]Checked for quality and quantity and then staged for further processing [/expand]
Q2. When designing a dock system for receiving and shipping goods. The dock layout will most likely be ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Scattered docks[/expand]
Q3. As items are off-loaded from a delivery vehicle, receiving personnel should be checking for ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Obvious shipping damage[/expand]
Q4. ____________________ is a function often performed in receiving.
[expand title=View Answer] Kitting for manufacturing[/expand]
Q5. If received items appear to be damaged, receiving personnel should ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer]Document the condition and move the items to a holding area for disposition [/expand]
Q6. After the receipt of items, repackaging operations may be necessary to ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer]Safeguard the items for processing or storage[/expand]
Q7. Computerised and automated systems are utilised to ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Enhance productivity, processing and inventory accuracy [/expand]
Q8. A warehouse storage location system that uses the storage space in the most optimal fashion is referred to as a ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Random system [/expand]
Q9. that tend to favor using a random storage location system include ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer]
A relatively large product range
A relatively low number of pallets/cartons per product line
Irregularly shaped unit loads
[/expand]
Q10. Associates working in the stocking area are not involved with which of these stages?
[expand title=View Answer] Loading delivery vehicles [/expand]
Q11. Goods may be carried from the receiving area to a storage area using which type of materials handling equipment?
[expand title=View Answer] Operator-Controlled Vehicles [/expand]
Q12. The stocking process is defined as the physical movement of an item between which two areas?
[expand title=View Answer] Receiving and storag [/expand]
Q13. A forklift is an example of ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] An operator-controlled vehicle [/expand]
Q14. A characteristic of a fixed location inventory storage system includes ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Dedicated spaces where items are continually stored [/expand]
Q15. The fixed storage approach provides ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Optimal use of storage space[/expand]
Q16. A key objective in order picking is to ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Minimize movement of personnel[/expand]
Q17. The purpose of kitting is to ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Group individual items into one common package [/expand]
Q18. Identify the picking method frequently used to reduce moment time.
[expand title=View Answer] Common [/expand]
Q19. Which of these is the principle in batch picking?
[expand title=View Answer] Pick for several orders on each circulation and then sort them by customer order[/expand]
Q20. After picking and consolidating items for shipment, the next step is to __________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Package the items [/expand]
Q21. Which statement is correct?
[expand title=View Answer] The order-picking process focuses on the selection of goods to fulfill customer orders [/expand]
Q22. Replenishment operations are best defined as ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] The activities associated with moving products from storage locations to the designated pick area [/expand]
Q23. Consolidating the locations of fast-moving items ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer]Can reduce required movements [/expand]
Q24. When items have been batch-picked, the sorting activity ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer]Separates one customer’s ordered items from other customer-picked stock-keeping units of the batch[/expand]
Q25. Outbound vehicle consolidation is the process of ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Collecting goods that are awaiting shipment for individual vehicle loads [/expand]
Q26. Rapid loading systems are used ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] To dramatically reduce the time needed to load or unload a vehicle[/expand]
Q27. Product characteristics (e.g., hazardous materials) may dictate the use of ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] A specific mode or carrier [/expand]
Q28. While several factors are used to determine freight costs, the first consideration is generally ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Weight[/expand]
Q29. The package loading and shipping function ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Ensures that outbound orders are placed on the correct delivery vehicle[/expand]
Q30. Barcodes may be used during shipping process to ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Generate shipping documentation [/expand]
Week 05 Quiz Answers
Practice Quiz 01
Q1. Go to this website and review the characteristics of each of the car types http://www.up.com/customers/all/equipment/descriptions/index.htm Then, answer the following questions:
Flat Cars may be an appropriate medium for moving flat-screen televisions – True or False?
[expand title=View Answer]True[/expand]
Q2. Gondola cars may be appropriate for moving lumber? True or False
[expand title=View Answer] True [/expand]
Q3. Box cars may be appropriate for moving palletized loads of consumer products?
[expand title=View Answer]True[/expand]
Q4. Considering the Tropicana Unit Train,
which may transport 5,405 tons of juice per train. If an over the road trailer had a capacity to haul 10 tons of juice, how many trailers would be required to transport the equivalent tonnage of the Unit Train?
Practice Quiz 02
Q1. The Bunker Adjustment Factor compensates for fuel price fluctuations for which mode of transportation?
[expand title=View Answer] Ships [/expand]
Q2. Mileage (i.e., per mile) cost is an example of ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Variable cost[/expand]
Q3. FAK stands for ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer]Freight-all-kind [/expand]
Q4. In airfreight, application of the dimensional factor is used to ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Calculate the theoretical weight[/expand]
Q5. In the context of freight movement, AMC stands for ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Miles covered[/expand]
Q6. Pricing rates established for less-than-truckload carriers are used for ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Differing freight characteristics [/expand]
Q7 . Private fleets are most common in which method of transport?
[expand title=View Answer] Motor [/expand]
Q8. A key characteristic of a third party logistics provider is ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] To perform all or part of companies’ logistics functions [/expand]
Q9. Companies maintain private fleets in order to ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Maintain competitive pricing and convenience [/expand]
Q10. For a fleet to classify as a captive private fleet, the primary business usually ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Is something other than transportation [/expand]
Q11. Which of these cannot issue their own bills of lading?
[expand title=View Answer] Freight brokers [/expand]
Q12. Which type of law or agency prohibits the German flag carrier Lufthansa from operating commercial flights from Dallas, Texas to Miami, Florida?
[expand title=View Answer] Cabotage [/expand]
Q13. The Uniform Commercial Code has been fully enacted in 49 of the 50 U.S. states except ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Louisiana [/expand]
Q14. UCC stands for ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Uniform Commercial Code[/expand]
Q15. What is the minimum age for driving an interstate truck?
[expand title=View Answer] 21 [/expand]
Q16. According to the Uniform Commercial Code, FOB stands for ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Free on Board [/expand]
Q17. A driver can drive up to 11 hours following 10 consecutive hours off-duty. Driver on-and off-duty hours are dictated by the ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Hours of service rules [/expand]
Q18. Together, which two sectors dominate global trade?
[expand title=View Answer] Ocean, Air[/expand]
Q19. A court is trying to decide the ownership of goods. Which document is the court most likely to rely on to prove ownership?
[expand title=View Answer] Bill-of-lading[/expand]
Q20. In international trade and transportation, international commercial terms are necessary to ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Prevent confusion and unnecessary litigation[/expand]
Q21. With freight on board terms, when does the ownership of goods transfer to the buyer?
[expand title=View Answer] When goods are placed on ship designated by the buyer [/expand]
Q22. The liability for and ownership of goods pass from the seller to the buyer in which of the 11 international commercial terms?
[expand title=View Answer] None of the 11 [/expand]
Q23. Freight rates and tariffs are usually quoted on the basis of ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Centweight [/expand]
Q24. Which of these are not forms of modal optimizations?
[expand title=View Answer] Containerized cargo [/expand]
Q25. An standard carrier alpha code is a unique code assigned for ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Freight carrier name identification [/expand]
Q26. SCAC stands for ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Standard carrier alpha code [/expand]
Q27. In route optimization, the things personnel can change are called ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Decision variables[/expand]
Q28. Which four product characteristic criteria are used to determine the appropriate rate class?
[expand title=View Answer] Density, storability, handling, and liability [/expand]
Q29. The Bill-of-Lading, also known as an air waybill, does not establish ____________________.
[expand title=View Answer] Transportation costs [/expand]
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