Project Execution: Running the Project Quiz Answers

Get Project Execution: Running the Project Quiz Answers of All Modules

Project Execution: Running the Project Module 01 Challenge Quiz Answers

Q1. Project managers should track the details of their projects to be transparent and manage risks as they arise. What is another benefit of tracking in project management?

Answer:

  • It helps the overall project stay on schedule.

Explanation: Tracking allows project managers to monitor progress and ensure tasks are completed on time. It helps identify delays early and make adjustments to keep the project on track.


Q2. A project manager closely tracks the hours and pay rate of a writer contracting on an ongoing project. What item are they tracking?

Answer:

  • Project costs

Explanation: Tracking hours and pay rates directly relates to the financial aspects of the project, helping project managers manage budgets effectively and prevent cost overruns.


Q3. A stakeholder wants you to create a chart with a granular breakdown of each task and the time remaining to complete the tasks. What type of chart can you present to them?

Answer:

  • Gantt chart

Explanation: Gantt charts provide a detailed breakdown of tasks, their durations, and dependencies. They are useful for stakeholders who need a visual representation of the project’s timeline and task progress.


Q4. How does a burndown chart differ from a Gantt chart?

Answer:

  • A burndown chart measures time against the amount of work completed and remaining; a Gantt chart is useful for large projects with many dependencies.

Explanation: A burndown chart tracks progress by showing how much work remains over time, while a Gantt chart focuses on task scheduling and dependencies for larger, more complex projects.


Q5. Imagine that a client wants to add an auction of donated items to a fundraising event. The project manager is currently executing the project for a dinner and short concert. Which of the triple constraints does this change impact the most?

Answer:

  • Scope

Explanation: Adding an auction expands the scope of the project, introducing new tasks and responsibilities that may also affect timeline and budget.


Q6. During a project’s execution phase, what type of event does scope creep signify?

Answer:

  • Risk

Explanation: Scope creep refers to the uncontrolled expansion of project scope, which poses a risk to timelines, budgets, and resources if not managed effectively.


Q7. Which of the following steps are part of dependency management?

Answer:

  • Continuous monitoring and control
  • Recording dependencies
  • Efficient communication

Explanation: Dependency management involves identifying and documenting dependencies, ensuring they are monitored throughout the project, and maintaining effective communication to address potential issues.


Q8. As a project manager, what project component should you focus on to minimize the likelihood of incurring changes to the project budget or extensions in the project timeline?

Answer:

  • Scope

Explanation: Clearly defining and controlling the scope helps prevent unnecessary changes that could lead to budget overruns or timeline extensions.


Q9. Under what conditions should you send an escalation email?

Answer:

  • Key stakeholders need to sign off on a final decision.
  • A problem leads to major changes in budget or timeline.

Explanation: Escalation is appropriate when a decision or issue significantly impacts the project’s success or requires stakeholder input to proceed.


Q10. What common problems can a project manager avoid by escalating an issue?

Answer:

  • Bad compromises
  • Trench wars

Explanation: Escalating issues helps avoid poor decisions or unresolved conflicts (“trench wars”) that could harm the project’s outcomes.


Q11. As a project manager, you’re implementing the ROAM technique for a new risk. You assign the risk to a team member so they can resolve it and monitor it to completion. Which ROAM action did you take?

Answer:

  • Owned

Explanation: In the ROAM (Resolved, Owned, Accepted, Mitigated) framework, assigning a risk to a team member for resolution and monitoring indicates the “Owned” action, ensuring accountability.

Project Execution: Running the Project Module 02 Challenge Quiz Answers

Q1. As a project manager, you’re overseeing a product launch. You have laid out a quality plan which you ensure is being followed by performing regular audits and check-ins with stakeholders. The audits and check-ins confirm your clients are receiving the exact high-quality product they expect. Which quality management concept does this represent?

Answer:

  • Quality assurance

Explanation: Quality assurance focuses on ensuring that the processes used to create a product meet predefined quality standards through regular audits and check-ins.


Q2. Which step of the quality management process should a project manager ensure quality standards after a problem is identified?

Answer:

  • Quality control

Explanation: Quality control involves identifying and addressing problems to ensure the final product meets quality standards.


Q3. As a project manager, part of your job is to keep the project moving forward when any kind of issue arises within the team or from other stakeholders. Which of the following are situations where the customer should be informed about such issues?

Answer:

  • When the issue will cause a delay in delivery
  • When the issue causes a problem and you need the customer’s input to resolve

Explanation: The customer should be informed if an issue impacts delivery timelines or requires their input for resolution to ensure transparency and collaboration.


Q4. During a user acceptance test (UAT), the users identify outliers that the original requirements didn’t account for, such as an extreme use of the product. What UAT quality control step does this represent?

Answer:

  • Edge cases

Explanation: Edge cases refer to unusual scenarios or extreme product uses that fall outside the typical user requirements but must still be tested for quality assurance.


Q5. A project manager engages in continuous improvement to enhance team performance. What is the purpose of the project manager’s continuous improvement?

Answer:

  • To enable process improvement

Explanation: Continuous improvement focuses on refining processes to enhance efficiency, effectiveness, and outcomes, benefiting both the team and the project.


Q6. As a project manager, you use the DMAIC framework and are currently applying the Analyze step. What is involved in this step?

Answer:

  • Identify the root cause of a problem and better understand the impact

Explanation: In the Analyze step of DMAIC (Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control), the focus is on diagnosing the root causes of issues and understanding their implications.


Q7. As a project manager applying the PDCA process, you’ve already attempted to fix a process that you believe is causing a common customer complaint. As your next step, you compare your results to the goal to determine if you fixed the issue. What PDCA step will you apply?

Answer:

  • Check

Explanation: The Check step in the PDCA (Plan, Do, Check, Act) cycle involves evaluating results against objectives to verify whether the solution was effective.


Q8. A project team discovers an efficient process to more quickly develop a product. The program manager implements the idea in several other projects. When the portfolio manager learns that the more efficient process is working across several projects, they recommend it to several programs. This scenario exemplifies which best practice?

Answer:

  • Continuous improvement

Explanation: Continuous improvement involves adopting and scaling efficient processes to enhance performance across multiple projects and programs.


Q9. Fill in the blank: Retrospectives are organized meetings that allow a team to reflect on what went well and what didn’t go well on a project. Often, retrospectives are conducted after _____.

Answer:

  • major milestones

Explanation: Retrospectives are typically held after significant project milestones to evaluate progress, successes, and areas for improvement.


Q10. As a project manager holding a retrospective, you discuss the successes and setbacks of the project and compile a document with team member’s feedback. As the project manager, how should you use this feedback?

Answer:

  • Create a plan that should be implemented for future projects

Explanation: Feedback gathered during retrospectives should be used to develop actionable plans for improving future projects and team processes.

Project Execution: Running the Project Module 03 Challenge Quiz Answers

Q1. From the project manager perspective, which of the following are benefits of using data?

Answer:

  • Make better decisions
  • Improve processes
  • Understand your users

Explanation: Using data helps project managers make informed decisions, optimize processes, and gain insights into user behavior. Increasing the project timeline is not a benefit but rather a potential outcome of delays.


Q2. In which of the following categories can project managers group metrics?

Answer:

  • Quality metrics
  • Reliability metrics
  • Productivity metrics

Explanation: Project managers use categories like quality, reliability, and productivity metrics to track performance and outcomes. Documentation metrics are not a standard category for grouping project metrics.


Q3. You are managing a conference and note the number of attendees increases by 200. What type of metric do you record this as?

Answer:

  • Milestone

Explanation: A significant increase in attendance represents a milestone achieved during the project, signifying progress toward project goals.


Q4. What is a visual that measures time against the amount of work done and amount of work remaining on a project?

Answer:

  • Burndown chart

Explanation: A burndown chart visualizes time against the amount of work completed and remaining, helping track project progress.


Q5. Fill in the blank: _____ data are statistical and numerical facts about a project.

Answer:

  • Quantitative

Explanation: Quantitative data refers to numerical and statistical information that can be measured and analyzed, unlike qualitative data, which is descriptive.


Q6. What is the fifth stage in the storytelling process that involves tying all of your data and visuals into one cohesive narrative?

Answer:

  • Shaping the story

Explanation: Shaping the story is the final stage of storytelling, where the gathered data and visuals are combined into a cohesive narrative for the audience.


Q7. In data visualization, what is a type of user interface that provides a snapshot view of a project’s progress or performance?

Answer:

  • Dashboard

Explanation: A dashboard is a user interface that displays an at-a-glance summary of project metrics, progress, or performance.


Q8. You review your presentation slides and remove any content that dilutes your message. What presentation goal are you trying to achieve?

Answer:

  • Being effective

Explanation: Removing unnecessary content ensures your presentation is clear and effective, focusing on delivering the main message to the audience.


Q9. As a project manager, you are ensuring all team members are made aware of your organization’s data security and privacy protocols. Which data analysis best practice does this represent?

Answer:

  • Increasing privacy awareness

Explanation: Making team members aware of data security and privacy protocols reflects the best practice of promoting privacy awareness to safeguard sensitive information.


Q10. As a project manager analyzing data, you ensure the data is accurate by removing duplicate responses and inconsistencies, and confirm the data contains no typos or errors. Which data analysis best practice does this represent?

Answer:

  • Prepare

Explanation: The preparation stage of data analysis involves cleaning and organizing data to ensure accuracy and reliability before analysis.


Q11. As a project manager creating a story, you are gathering data from reputable sources and leveraging relevant project resources. What step in the storytelling process are you enacting?

Answer:

  • Find the data

Explanation: Finding the data involves sourcing accurate, relevant, and reliable information as the first step in the storytelling process.


Q12. You are preparing a data presentation. To explain your data, you want to demonstrate a relationship between data sets by representing the values of two variables with individual data points (dots). Which data visualization tool should you use?

Answer:

  • Scatter plot

Explanation: Scatter plots are used to show relationships between two variables by plotting data points, making them ideal for visualizing correlations or trends.

Project Execution: Running the Project Module 03 Challenge Quiz Answers

Q1. As a project manager, your team has completed the required tasks for a project. What is the first step of the closeout process?

Answer:

  • The project manager can review all tasks to assure the work is completed and no tasks were missed.

Explanation: The first step of the closeout process is to verify that all tasks and deliverables are complete, ensuring that no work is left unfinished. Celebrations, user testing, or client sign-offs come after this verification.


Q2. Which step of the closing process may be as simple as sending an email or as complicated as having a large meeting?

Answer:

  • Make sure that all stakeholders are aware the project, or phase, is ending.

Explanation: Notifying stakeholders about the project’s completion can vary in complexity depending on the project’s size and scope. It ensures that everyone involved is informed about the closure.


Q3. What step of the project closing phase is the project manager missing?

Answer:

  • Review all contracts and documentation

Explanation: The scenario outlines task reviews, stakeholder approvals, retrospectives, and team disbandment but omits the review of contracts and documentation, which is essential for legal and administrative closure.


Q4. As a project manager, which of the following should you include in the closeout report?

Answer:

  • Resources, such as the original project plan
  • Key accomplishments, such as which objectives the team met
  • Open items, such as ideas for changes you’d like to make

Explanation: The closeout report should include resources, achievements, and unresolved items to document the project’s scope and lessons learned. Daily tasks are too granular for this summary.


Q5. As a project manager, you put together closing documentation for a project. Which of the following steps should you complete?

Answer:

  • Gather final feedback from stakeholders
  • Create closeout reports
  • Verify that all team members completed their tasks
  • Review notes from any retrospectives

Explanation: Closeout documentation involves collecting stakeholder feedback, finalizing reports, ensuring task completion, and analyzing retrospective notes to encapsulate project outcomes.


Q6. What items will help the customer understand the product after project closing?

Answer:

  • Product manuals
  • How-to guides

Explanation: Product manuals and how-to guides provide detailed instructions and knowledge to help customers use the product. A statement of work and risk registers are more internal documents.


Q7. What is a benefit of retrospectives?

Answer:

  • They help identify areas for improvement.

Explanation: Retrospectives are conducted to analyze successes and failures, enabling teams to learn and improve processes for future projects.


Q8. Your team has completed their project, but you’ve neglected to close it out and confirm all work is done. What impact can this create for your organization?

Answer:

  • Negatively impact scheduled launch dates
  • Damage your relationship with the customer or client
  • Put your organization at legal risk

Explanation: Failing to close out a project can delay launches, harm client relationships, and expose the organization to legal risks. Removing unnecessary expenses is not a consequence of neglecting closure.


Q9. Fill in the blank: The project closeout report is made by project managers primarily for _____.

Answer:

  • Stakeholders

Explanation: Closeout reports provide stakeholders with a summary of the project’s accomplishments, deliverables, and lessons learned, ensuring transparency and accountability.


Q10. Fill in the blank: A _____ is a meeting to discuss successes, failures, and possible future improvements on the project.

Answer:

  • Retrospective

Explanation: A retrospective is held after a project to reflect on what went well, identify challenges, and suggest improvements for future projects.

Get All Course Quiz Answers of Google Project Management: Professional Certificate >>

Foundations of Project Management Quiz Answers

Project Initiation: Starting a Successful Project Coursera Quiz Answers

Project Planning: Putting It All Together Coursera Quiz Answers

Complete Agile Project Management Quiz Answers

Capstone: Applying Project Management in the Real World Quiz Answers

Share your love

Newsletter Updates

Enter your email address below and subscribe to our newsletter

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *