Organizational Analysis Coursera Quiz Answers – Networking Funda

Get All Weeks Organizational Analysis Coursera Quiz Answers

Module 1 – Quiz

Q1. Defining an Organization

Which of the following is REQUIRED in order to have an organization (select all that apply)?

• A common goal or purpose
• An official name, logo, and license
• A product that can be purchased
• A shared physical space
• Multiple people
• Coordinated behavior

Q2. Change in Organizations

Which of the following best describes the issue of change in organizations (select all that apply):

• Organizations are usually fluid and flexible, and respond easily to attempts at change and improvement.
• Attempts to change an organization may fail because the environment in which a reform was tested is different from the environment in which it is being implemented.
• It is rare for an individual, group, or society to attempt to change an organization in meaningful ways. Once organizations are established, they remain essentially the same unless they are shut down.
• It is not uncommon for individuals, groups, or society to try to change an organization in order to make it better. Implementing reforms, however, is fraught with challenges and complications.

Q3. Functions of the Organization

Which of the following is a  that organizations struggle to answer (select all that apply)?

• What kind of environment is a good fit for the organization?
• How should the organization recruit and replace its members?
• What should be the organization’s goal or purpose?
• How should the organization coordinate the activities of its members to best achieve its goals?

Q4. The Value of Organizational Theory

Which of the following are reasons why organizational theories are important (select all that apply)?

• They provide generalizable knowledge that can be useful in a variety of familiar and unfamiliar contexts, rather than particular knowledge that is relevant only to a single situation or organization
• They explain everything that goes on in every organization in a way that makes things clear and simple
• They allow you to better understand and interpret complex phenomena
• They afford perspectives beyond your own individual experience
• They can help you be a better manager

Q5. Key Components of an Organization

Q6. True or False: Organizational participants consist only of individuals with specified roles and responsibilities.

• False
• True

Q6. Key Components of an Organization

Which of the following accurately describes social structures in an organization (select all that apply)?

• They can reflect deeply held cultural beliefs and understandings
• They can shape recurring patterns of interaction
• They are fully captured by an organizational chart detailing each person’s job title, superiors, and subordinates.
• Formal social structures are always more important than informal social structures when trying to understand how organizations operate
• They can be formal or informal

Q7. Key Components of an Organization

True or False: In organizational theory, an organization’s technology refers only to the computers or other machines it uses to accomplish work or turn inputs into outputs.

• True
• False

Q8. Key Components of an Organization

Which of the following constitute an organization’s environment (select all that apply)?

• Technological surroundings
• Cultural surroundings
• Social surroundings
• Physical surroundings

Q9. Identifying Organizational Theories

You will now be shown different statements about organizations. Each statement expresses the point of view of one of the three classes of organizational theories (Rational, Natural, and Open) we have discussed. For each of the six statements, please identify the corresponding class of organizational theory. When you are ready to begin, please press continue.

The organization is thought to have multiple actors with potentially conflicting goals. These actors often form emergent and organic coalitions.

• Rational
• Natural
• Open

Q10. Identifying Organizational Theories

You will now be shown different statements about organizations. Each statement expresses the point of view of one of the three classes of organizational theories (Rational, Natural, and Open) we have discussed. For each of the six statements, please identify the corresponding class of organizational theory. When you are ready to begin, please press continue.

The organization is thought to function as a coherent, unitary actor.

• Rational
• Natural
• Open

Q11. Identifying Organizational Theories

You will now be shown different statements about organizations. Each statement expresses the point of view of one of the three classes of organizational theories (Rational, Natural, and Open) we have discussed. For each of the six statements, please identify the corresponding class of organizational theory.

The organization is viewed as part of a broad system encompassing multiple organizations.

• Rational
• Natural
• Open

Q12. Identifying Organizational Theories

You will now be shown different statements about organizations. Each statement expresses the point of view of one of the three classes of organizational theories (Rational, Natural, and Open) we have discussed. For each of the six statements, please identify the corresponding class of organizational theory.

The organization’s environment is thought to play a major role in its behavior.

• Rational
• Natural
• Open

Q13. Identifying Organizational Theories

You will now be shown different statements about organizations. Each statement expresses the point of view of one of the three classes of organizational theories (Rational, Natural, and Open) we have discussed. For each of the six statements, please identify the corresponding class of organizational theory.

The organization’s environment is largely ignored when considering its behavior.

• Rational
• Natural
• Open

Q14. Identifying Organizational Theories

You will now be shown different statements about organizations. Each statement expresses the point of view of one of the three classes of organizational theories (Rational, Natural, and Open) we have discussed. For each of the six statements, please identify the corresponding class of organizational theory.

Organizations are viewed less as making decisions and more as responding and adapting to their environment.

• Rational
• Natural
• Open

Q15. Adams Avenue School

Which of the following was a challenge faced at Adams Avenue School when it first opened (select all that apply)?

• It was difficult to get parents of students to care about what was going on in the school or to be involved in their children’s education
• The faculty had been trained to work with elementary students, even though Adams Avenue School was a middle school
• A shortage of classroom materials

Q16. Adams Avenue School

Which of the following resulted from the implementation of Individually Guided Education at Adams Avenue School (select all that apply)?

• Grade level differentiation became more significant
• The relationship between students and teachers became more personable, individualized, and trusting
• The school experienced a more communal ethos and more positive relationships
• Reward and recognition focused on individual achievement more than effort or improvement.
• Each student learned at his or her own pace

Q17. Adams Avenue School

According to Metz, which of the following describes the school culture at Adams Avenue School (select all that apply)?

• Part of what made the culture at Adams Avenue School so strong is that it was shared by every member of the school community
• It was generally positive, characterized by healthy interactions
• It may have been influenced by the physical size of the school
• The principal reinforced the school’s culture in both formal and informal ways
• The faculty culture, once established, endured on its own without needing to be rebuilt or renewed

Q18. Adams Avenue School

The small size of Adams Avenue School and its adoption of IGE contributed to which of the following (select all that apply)?

• A strong and positive school culture meant the principal did not need to engage in confrontation or face resistance
• Improved student-student relations
• An ethos and culture that was embraced by everyone in the school community
• A less hierarchical student social structure
• Improved teacher-student relations
• Familiarity among the school’s community members

Module 2 – Quiz

Q1. Logic of Consequence and Logic of Appropriateness

True or false: Employing a logic of appropriateness rather than a logic of consequence simplifies decision-making by reducing the amount of ambiguity and uncertainty one faces.

• True
• False

Q2. Logic of Consequence vs Logic of Appropriateness

In  s 1 – 4, please identify whether each of the following four decision justifications reflects a logic of consequence or a logic of appropriateness approach to decision making.

“I made my choice after determining that the expected costs were outweighed by the expected benefits.”

• Logic of consequence
• Logic of appropriateness

Q3. Chicago Public Schools

True or False: The second reform effort was characterized by an emphasis on accountability, centralization of power, and Republican leadership.

• True
• False

Q4. The Bureaucratic Politics Model

Which of the following are characteristic of the Bureaucratic Politics Model (select all that apply)?

• The use of power and points of leverage in bargaining processes that determine coalitions and organizational action
• Negotiation among organization members
• The assumption of a unified actor without competing objectives
• Coalitions formed through political processes

Q5. Logic of Consequence and Logic of Appropriateness

True or false: The logic of appropriateness focuses on rules, traditions, and standard operating procedures, as opposed to means-end rationality or cost-benefit analysis.

• True
• False

Q6. Chicago Public Schools

True or false: The first reform effort was characterized by an anti-bureaucratic philosophy, decentralization of power, and Democratic leadership.

• True
• False

Q7. “I choose not to steal because the value of what I could gain from stealing is not worth the risk of getting caught and put in jail.”

• Logic of consequence
• Logic of appropriatness

Q8. Logic of Consequence and Logic of Appropriateness

True or false: According to the logic of appropriateness, individuals attempt to match rules and identities to situations in order to determine a course of action.

• True
• False

Q9. True or false: Following a crisis, reform efforts in organizations will often attempt to centralize power and control.

• True
• False

Q10. Rational Actor, Organizational Process, and Bureaucratic Politics Models

Which of the following statements are true (select all that apply)?

• The Organizational Process Model is best for understanding how an organization plans for a crisis.
• The Rational Actor, Organizational Process, and Bureaucratic Politics models can all help us better understand an organization’s behavior, but they all have their limitations as well.
• The Bureaucratic Politics Model is best for understanding how an organization changes a tentative decision it has already reached.
• The Rational Actor, Organizational Process, and Bureaucratic Politics models can be combined and synthesized to achieve a more thorough and nuanced understanding of organizational behavior.
• There is some concern that the Rational Actor Model may exaggerate an individual’s or an organization’s agency.
• The Rational Actor Model is best for understanding how an organization reacts to a crisis.

Q11. Which of the following are necessary in order to make fully or ideally rational decisions (select all that apply)?

• More time, information, and attention than most people possess in most situations.
• Knowledge of the consequences associated with each possible action or choice.
• Knowledge of all your possible actions or choices.
• Knowledge of your preferences. In other words, you need a way of ranking possible consequences in terms of their desirability.

Q12. Rational Actor Model

Which of the following are associated with the Rational Actor Model as opposed to the Organizational Process Model (select all that apply)?

• The assumption that actions are taken by intentional actors for the achievement of known goals or purposes
• The use of standard operating procedures
• The evaluation of options and their consequences
• A focus on organizational routines
• The use of power, coalition building, and compromise
• Tradition and heuristics

Q13. Logic of Consequence and Logic of Appropriateness

True or false: The logic of appropriateness and the logic of consequences are equally concerned with the expected consequences of a particular action.

• True
• False

Q14. Bounded Rationality vs Full Rationality

Which of the following statements about boundedly-rational (or satisficing) and fully-rational decision-makers are true (select all that apply)?

• Unlike a fully rational decision-maker, a boundedly-rational decision-maker does not employ logic or systematic thinking.
• Unlike a fully rational decision-maker who selects the best possible alternative, a boundedly-rational decision-maker selects the first alternative he or she encounters that is good enough.
• Bounded-rationality is a more accurate description than full rationality of how people usually make decisions.
• Unlike a fully rational decision-maker who always considers every possible alternative, a boundedly-rational decision-maker starts by considering a subset of alternatives.

Q15. “As a member of the military, I did what someone in the military is expected to do.”

• Logic of consequence
• Logic of appropriateness

Q16. “I choose not to steal because stealing is wrong.”

• Logic of consequence
• Logic of appropriateness

Module 3 – Quiz

Q1. Developing and Managing a Coalition

Which of the following are challenges faced by anyone seeking to develop and manage a coalition (select all that apply)?

• Capitalizing on potential ties and exchanges before they disappear
• Knowing the preferences and objectives of potential coalition members
• Identifying the relevant histories and linkages of staff members
• Defending against opposing coalitions who may try to attract some of your specialist or tag-along members
• Knowing what individuals or organizations may be interested in joining your coalition

Q2. Which of the following best captures the idea of “log-rolling” or “quid pro quo”?

• Individuals do what they think is right without coordinating with others or expecting anyone else to do them favors in the future.
• One person agrees to do another person a favor with the understanding that the other person will then return the favor.
• Going out into the forest and cutting down a tree.

Q3. Organizational Theory and Management Strategy

For the next few   s, select the organizational theory that would lead to the management strategy described.

Management Strategy: Know what organizations are involved, what standard operating procedures are in place, and which organizations are best suited to which problems.

• Rational Actor
• Organizational Process
• Bureaucratic Politics

Q4. Organizational Theory and Management Strategy

For the next few   s, select the organizational theory that would lead to the management strategy described.

Management Strategy: A high level of involvement in all issues faced by the coalition

• Core member
• Specialist member
• Peripheral member

Q5. Organizational Theory and Management Strategy

For the next few   s, select the organizational theory that would lead to the management strategy described.

Management Strategy: An interest in coalition by-products

• Core member
• Specialist member
• Peripheral member

Q6. Coalitions

True or false: A coalition consists of multiple individuals or organizations with potentially competing or unrelated interests

• True
• False

Q7. Maintaining a Coalition

Which of the following threaten a coalition (select all that apply)?

• Exaggerated initial support
• Log-rolling
• A breakdown in trust
• Ambiguity

Q8. Why Study Organizational Theory?

Which of the following are potential benefits and applications of studying organizational theories or lenses (select all that apply)?

• Organizational theories allow you to solve specific problems in an organization without consulting its members, even if you are an outsider to that organization.
• Organizational theories provide a sense of the many relevant facets of organizational life, some of which many organization members may not consider when evaluating an organizational problem.
• Organizational theories offer a systematic way of thinking about an organization and its problems.
• Organizational theories can help you better understand your own personal experiences, though they cannot provide access to perspectives and examples beyond the ones with which you have firsthand experience.
• Organizational theories provide a vocabulary that is easy to understand, giving you a simple language and set of terms for communicating what is going on in an organization to any of its members.

Q9. Types of Coalition Membership

For the next few   s, please state whether each of the participant characteristics described is most typical of core, specialist, or peripheral coalition members.

Having one’s name associated with the coalition is one’s primary interest

• Core member
• Specialist member
• Peripheral member

Q10. Types of Coalition Membership

For the next few   s, please state whether each of the participant characteristics described is most typical of core, specialist, or peripheral coalition members.

Issue honing

• Core member
• Specialist member
• Peripheral member

Q11. Coalitions

True of false: Though a coalition may be stable and enduring, it is often temporary

• True
• False

Q12. Successful Exchanges

Which of the following can help you fulfill your preferences or identity in an exchange relationship (select all that apply)?

• The ability to offer a wealth of resources that no one else wants or needs
• The ability to influence preferences and identities
• The ability to control exchange deadlines
• The ability to write the rules of exchange

Q13. Why Join a Coalition?

Which of the following are reasons an individual or organization might join a coalition (select all that apply)?

• Joining a coalition is a way of protecting and pursuing parochial interests
• Joining a coalition (especially early) allows one to see firsthand how the coalition’s agenda is shaped, even though one cannot influence it
• Coalition membership can provide access to desirable information
• Coalition membership can send a desirable symbolic message

Q14. Coalitions and the Process of Exchange

Which of the following characterize the exchange process (select all that apply)?

• The process is characterized by bargaining and negotiation
• A powerful participant can force others into exchanges they do not want to make
• Mutually acceptable trades are carried out until no more are available or until time for trading runs out
• Exchange relations are subject to specified rules

Q15. Organizational Theory and Management Strategy

For the next few   s, select the organizational theory that would lead to the management strategy described.

Management Strategy: Know alternatives and their consequences; improve the quality of information you receive.

• Rational Actor
• Organizational Process
• Bureaucratic Politics

Q16. Organizational Theory and Management Strategy

For the next few   s, select the organizational theory that would lead to the management strategy described.

Management Strategy: Identify key players and know their interests, points of leverage, and weaknesses. Work relationships and alignments to your advantage.

• Rational Actor
• Organizational Process
• Bureaucratic Politics

Module 4 – Quiz

Q1. Garbage Can Theory and the San Francisco Unified School District Desegregation Case

True or false: Every major problem going on at the time–such as the teacher’s strike, lawsuit, and teacher/student boycott–found its way into the desegregation meetings.

• True
• False

Q2. Garbage Can Theory and the San Francisco Unified School District Desegregation Case

True or false: Given that 24 potential solutions were developed, it is safe to say that no feasible solutions went unconsidered.

• True
• False

Q3. Managing Organized Anarchy

Please select the management style (reformer, enthusiast, or pragmatist) that is best reflected by the action described.

Restricting access to a meeting so that only those who agree with you can attend.

• Reformer
• Enthusiast
• Pragmatist

Q4. Garbage Can Theory/Organized Anarchies

Which of the following are key tenets of the Organized Anarchy view of organizational decision-making (select all that apply)?

• In addition to problems looking for solutions, solutions also look for problems to which they can attach themselves.
• Which problems, solutions, and participants happen to be in a given choice arena may be arbitrary, rather than determined by substance or content.
• Participation in choice arenas is fluid—people come and go for reasons unrelated to the task at hand.
• Decisions occur when problems, solutions, and participants come together in a choice arena.

Q5. Garbage Can Theory and Legislation

Which of the following are potential aspects of the legislative process that origin, rational choice, and incrementalist theories fail to address (select all that apply)?

• Legislators decide on legislation by first identifying a problem, then evaluating all the potential legislative solutions to that problem, and finally choosing the legislation that represents the best solution to that problem.
• Most new legislation is just a slightly modified version of previous legislation.
• Many legislative solutions exist before it is clear what problem they are meant to solve.
• The constant flow of participants into and out of the legislative process.

Q6. Garbage Can Theory and the San Francisco Unified School District Desegregation Case

True or false: Having citizen advisory council meetings during the day meant that most participants were white, middle class women.

• True
• False

Q7. Organized Anarchy

Which of the following are true of organized anarchies (select all that apply)?

• In organized anarchies with democratic access structures, every individual has access to every choice arena.
• In organized anarchies with hierarchical access structures, each individual has access to a particular choice arena to which he or she is well-suited.
• The arrival time of problems, solutions, participants, and choice arenas may be routine and predictable.
• In an organized anarchy, a choice arena always leads to a decision or solution.

Q8. Setting strict rules about who can attend a meeting, who can determine the agenda, and the importance of reaching decisions that can actually be implemented in an attempt to keep conversations on-topic and decisions actionable.

• Reformer
• Ethusiast
• Pragmatist

Q9. Garbage Can Theory and No Child Left Behind

Which of the following are true about Title V of NCLB (which provides federal grant support for innovative programs and public charter schools) (select all that apply)?

• Nothing like Title V or NCLB had ever existed before. They were created as a unique response to the particular challenges of the time.
• One could present Title V as a solution to a variety of disparate problems, including failing schools, lack of competition for public schools, lack of innovation in public schools, and unequal opportunity for lower income children.
• In order for Title V to be considered a solution, it must solve what everyone recognizes is a real problem.

Q10. Organized Anarchy

Which of the following statements are consistent with the Garbage Can or Organized Anarchy view of organizational decision-making (select all that apply)?

• As with the Rational Actor model, all decision alternatives are identified, their consequences are evaluated in terms of known preferences, and the alternative that is expected to lead to the most attractive consequence is chosen
• Solutions look for problems at the same time that problems look for solutions
• Decision-makers, choice opportunities, problems, and solutions are connected more by their temporal simultaneity (i.e., they happen to be in the same place at the same time) than by their substance or content

Q11. Managing Organized Anarchy

Please select the management style (reformer, enthusiast, or pragmatist) that is best reflected by the action described.

Flooding a meeting with many problems so that a particular problem that you do not want to be addressed does not get meaningfully discussed.

• Reformer
• Enthusiast
• Pragmatist

Q12. Organized Anarchy

Which of the following are characteristic of an organized anarchy view of organizational decision-making (select all that apply)?

• Proposed solutions that change over the course of bargaining
• Everyone’s point of view is known and expressed, whether they happen to be present for a particular conversation or not
• Easily identifiable and consistent platforms and identities
• Problems and solutions that arrive independently and are loosely coupled
• A sense of chaos and dynamism

Q13. Managing Organized Anarchy

Please select the management style (reformer, enthusiast, or pragmatist) that is best reflected by the action described.

Appreciating digressions and impractical suggestions for the opportunity they give individuals to work out their thoughts and to feel included.

• Reformer
• Enthusiast
• Pragmatist

Module 5 – Quiz

Q1. Organizational Learning and Learning Schools

Which of the following statements about Agassiz and Okanagon middle schools are true (select all that apply)?

• Both schools encourage minimal social interaction and collaboration, instead encouraging teachers to learn primarily from their own experience
• Both schools emphasize practice—reflection on practice and improvement of practice
• Both schools emphasize knowledge creation and knowledge transfer
• The primary technology these schools use to achieve organizational learning is social-structural reforms
• Both schools have a constant desire to learn and improve

Q2. Organizational Learning and Learning Curves

Which of the following statements about organizational learning curves are TRUE (select all that apply)?

• If a learning curve shows progress on learning indicators or metrics, you can always be confident that the organization itself is actually learning
• Learning curves tend to plateau eventually
• Improving personnel, routines, and technology are all potential ways of generating steeper learning curves

Q3. Organizational Learning, Exploration, Exploitation, and Learning Traps

Which of the following are associated with organizational exploration (select all that apply)?

• Refining, honing, increasing efficiency, and getting better at doing what one has done before
• An increased potential for bold innovation
• The potential of falling into a competency trap
• Taking risks, generating variation, and seeking out new alternatives
• An increased risk of failure

Q4. Organizational Learning, Memory, and Forgetting

Which of the following can contribute to organizational forgetting (select all that apply):

• Personnel turnover
• Having people in an organization with important practical and tacit knowledge, but not having that knowledge written down
• Disruptions to routines that prevent practitioners from recording and sharing what works
• Lack of collaboration and communication

Q5. Organizational Learning

How can you encourage a learning organization (select all that apply)?

• Create opportunities for collaboration and sharing of implicit or tacit knowledge
• When employees try to improvise their own way of doing a task, subtly but firmly discourage them and point them toward established rules and procedures that have been proven to work in the past
• Try to identify, store, and transfer practical knowledge through collaboration and the creation of practitioner knowledge repositories

Q6. Organizational Learning

Which of the following statements about organizational learning are true (select all that apply)?

• In the organizational learning perspective, organizations learn by encoding the lessons of experience into organizational structures, routines, norms and beliefs.
• When we talk about an organization learning, we really mean that the individuals within the organization learn. To say that an organization learns does not make sense.
• A key feature of organizational learning is the presumption that an organization can adapt and change.
• Organizational learning places greater emphasis on experiential, practical, applied knowledge than on formal, written rules.

Q7. Organizational Learning and Networks of Practice

Which of the following statements about networks of practice are true (select all that apply)?

• Members of a network of practice may never meet in person
• Members of a network of practice share identities, which facilitates communication and knowledge transfer
• Networks of practice usually offer as much of a sense of community as do communities of practice
• Networks of practice render communities of practice unnecessary
• Networks of practice address some of the shortcomings of communities of practice, such as their homogeneity and lack of reach
• Networks of practice offer more “learning about” than “learning to be”

Q8. Organizational Learning

When is an organizational learning model most relevant (select all that apply)?

• When local actors are encouraged to improvise
• When members of an organization do their work independently, with little opportunity for collaboration, communication, or knowledge transfer
• When an organization has the capacity to alter and improve its core practices
• When an organization does not receive feedback about its performance from the environment (feedback is usually distracting or confusing)

Q9. Organizational Learning

Which of the following distinguish work practices from ostensive rules you may read in a textbook, handbook, or manual (select all that apply)?

• Practices are shared and understood through formalisms
• Practices are collaborative
• Practices entail improvisation and adaptation via use

Q10. Organizational Learning and Communities of Practice

Which of the following are true about communities of practice (select all that apply):

• In a community of practice, one learns by reading and studying more than by doing.
• Communities of practice teach their members how to do certain things, but not how to be certain types of people. Communities of practice are about skills, not identities.
• Meetings in a community of practice should insist on decisions and action, rather than sense-making or meaning-making.
• Communities of practice can be fostered by encouraging collaboration.

Module 6 – Quiz

Q1. Engineering Organizational Culture

True or false: An organizational self gets displayed through artifacts such as desk paraphernalia and clothing.

• True
• False

Q2. Engineering Organizational Culture

Which of the following statements about managerial, expert, and objective authority at Tech are TRUE (select all that apply)?

• Senior management conveys moral order and moral significance
• Both positive and negative external press are emphasized in order to paint the most accurate and objective portrait possible
• The expert view challenges, and is at odds with, the managerial view
• Senior management develops a sense of the collective “we”
• The expert view focuses less on ideals than does the managerial view

Q3. Engineering Organizational Culture

True or false: An organizational self gets displayed through behavior in meetings and presentations, but not in more informal settings such as lunch.

• True
• False

Q4. Organizational Culture

Which of the following statements about organizational culture are TRUE (select all that apply)?

• Examples of Google’s culture include its campus, free food, and play areas
• Organizational culture includes normative aspects, but it does not include cognitive ones
• Within an organizational culture, actors make sense of their existence according to identities and norms that are often constructs afforded them by the organization
• Organizational culture can be a tool for managerial control and influence

Q5. Organizational Culture

Which of the following are observable features of organizational culture (select all that apply)?

• Style of dress
• Norms of communication
• The layout of physical space
• Myths and stories about an organization’s founder
• The formality with which meetings are conducted

Q6. Organizational Culture

Which of the following statements about organizational culture (according to Martin and Meyerson) are TRUE (select all that apply)?

• An integrated organizational culture is always the most preferable
• An ambiguous organizational culture is characterized by lack of consensus and clarity about how to implement things and what things mean
• An integrated organizational culture is characterized by some lack of consensus between sub-cultures, but complete consensus and consistency within sub-cultures

Q7. Organizational Culture

Which of the following statements about organizational culture are TRUE (select all that apply)?

• An ambiguous organizational culture is always best.
• A differentiated organizational culture is always best.
• An integrated organizational culture is always best.
• The best kind of organizational culture for an organization depends on the type of organization and its particular circumstances.

An integrated organizational culture is always better than an ambiguous organizational culture.

Q8. Engineering Organizational Culture

Which of the following statements are true (select all that apply)?

• A contrived self demonstrates social skill in alternating between role-embarcement and role-distance
• Most managers at Tech respond to Tech culture with role-embracement
• Role-distance involves a temporary detachment from the performance of the member role
• Part of what makes Tech’s culture so strong is that all of its employees embrace their ritual presentations of self

Q9. Engineering Organizational Culture

Which of the following are ways to preserve an authentic, individual self amidst a strong organizational culture (select all that apply)?

• Limit your emotional involvement with work
• Invest all your time and energy in your organization
• Adamantly protect non-work time
• Define your authentic self by non-work interests and identities, such as runner or chef

Module 7 – Quiz

Q1. Resource Dependence Theory

Which of the following statements about Resource Dependence Theory (RDT) are TRUE (select all that apply)?

• RDT takes an Open Systems perspective on organizations
• Coalition Theory and RDT are both exchange theories that focus on individuals as the unit of analysis
• RDT is more concerned with standard operating procedures than with individual sense-making or meaning
• RDT does not really consider an organization’s environment

Q2. Resource Dependence Theory

Which of the following statements are consistent with Resource Dependence Theory (RDT) (select all that apply)?

• An organization’s structure and behavior will be heavily determined by its environment.
• An organization’s goals will have little to do with its dependence relations.
• Two critical   s for understanding an organization’s behavior are, “What are the key resources in an organization’s environment?” and “Who controls those resources?”
• Ambiguity and dependence can be desirable for the organization.

Q3. Resource Dependence Theory

Which of the following statements about bridging strategies are TRUE (select all that apply)?

• A joint venture is an example of the bridging strategy known as exchanging.
• Pooling and merging are more involved bridging efforts than are negotiating and exchanging.
• The goal of bridging strategies is to shape dependence relations in the environment.
• A firm taking over one of its competitors is an example of horizontal merging.

Q4. Resource Dependence Theory

Which of the following statements about buffering strategies are TRUE (select all that apply)?

• Forecasting involves anticipating and preparing for upcoming changes in the environment.
• Storing extra inputs in an organization for times when they are less available in the environment is an example of stockpiling.
• Leveling is an active strategy that attempts to keep supply and demand constant by influencing the environment.
• Adjusting scale or downsizing involves changing the nature of an organization’s technical core in order to meet environmental constraints.

Q5. Resource Dependence Theory

Which of the following are critiques of Resource Dependence Theory (RDT) (select all that apply)?

• RDT assumes that all organizations are more or less similar, whereas in reality some organizations may be more about identity and matching than resource dependence.
• RDT focuses on pairwise relationships between firms, and fails to consider the environment as a larger network of interconnected organizations.
• RDT assumes that a resource’s value is known, but sometimes a resource’s value is unclear.
• RDT places too much emphasis on organizational culture.

Q6. Resource Dependence Theory

Which of the following statements about the attempted merger between Northwestern University and the University of Chicago are TRUE (select all that apply)?

• Both universities hoped the merger would increase economies of scale, thereby reducing their vulnerability to economic cycles.
• Northwestern University tended to prioritize its undergraduate programs and applied focus, whereas the University of Chicago tended to prioritize its graduate programs and theoretical focus.
• Both universities sought to create an ideal university.
• One reason the joining of the universities may have failed is that the University of Chicago viewed itself as the more powerful player in a take-over, whereas Northwestern University was looking for a process that felt like more of a joint effort.

Module 8 – Quiz

Q1. Network Forms of Organization

True or false: The network form of organization is distinct from both the market and hierarchical forms of organization.

• True
• False

Q2. Network Analysis of Organizations

True or false: In Network Analysis, “homophily” is the idea that similarity breeds ties.

• True
• False

Q3. Network Analysis of Organizations

True or false: In Network Analysis, “propinquity” is the idea that similarity breeds ties.

• True
• False

Q4 .Network Forms of Organization

The customized response network form of organization is best at…

• Solving ambiguous problems that need innovative solutions
• Solving familiar problems with known responses
• Solving complex problems where components are known but the sequence of the solution is not

Q5. Peer Influence and Network Formation

Which of the following statements about network patterns are true (select all that apply)?

• Organizational contexts can amplify or dampen the salience of different tie mechanisms.
• Because all network patterns arise from the same tie mechanisms (e.g., propinquity, homophily, reciprocity), they all look more or less the same.
• Different tie mechanisms usually correspond to different network patterns.

Q6. Network Forms of OrganizationThe routine response network form of organization is best at…

• Solving ambiguous problems that need innovative solutions
• Solving familiar problems with known responses
• Solving complex problems where components are known but the sequence of the solution is not

Q7. Network Analysis of Organizations

Network analysts are concerned with which of the following (select all that apply)?

• Determining where and when important relationships occur.
• Determining a network’s boundaries.
• Determining where a network begins and ends.
• Determining when a network begins and ends.
• Determining whether the most relevant types of behaviors are connected to observed relations or perceived relations.

Q8. Network Analysis of Organizations

Which of the following statements are true (select all that apply)?

• Social embeddedness is the idea that actions are unfettered by social context.
• Social embeddedness is the idea that, within social structures, actors decide and act in intentional ways.
• Social embeddedness is the idea that actions are socially determined and devoid of choice.
• An organization’s opportunities and constraints depend on the form or overall pattern of the network to which it belongs, as well as its location or position within that network.
• The structure of social networks can change over time.

Q9. Network Forms of Organization

Which of the following are keys to successfully managing a network of organizations (select all that apply)?

• Keeping performance data private.
• Developing a strong culture with shared goals and values in order to unite member organizations.
• Building trust.
• Choosing partners carefully, making sure to avoid competition between network members.

Q10.Network Analysis of Organizations

Which of the following statements about networks are true (select all that apply)?

• Infrequent interaction between acquaintances is an example of strong network ties.
• Weak network ties have bonding capital.
• Being a central actor in a network usually has certain advantages.
• At any one time, people and organizations can be embedded in multiple networks and positions.
• Weak network ties have bridging capital.
• A member of a network can be central because it is prominent (has many ties) or because it is a key mediator (bridges different parts of the network structure).

Q11. Network Forms of Organization

The modular response network form of organization is best at…

• Solving ambiguous problems that need innovative solutions
• Solving familiar problems with known responses
• Solving complex problems where components are known but the sequence of the solution is not

Q12. Network Forms of Organization

Which of the following statements about the social network perspective and Resource Dependence Theory are true (select all that apply)?

• Using the analogy of a traffic jam, Resource Dependence Theory is like looking out from your car at the other cars around you, whereas the social network perspective is like looking down at the traffic jam from a helicopter.
• Resource Dependence Theory is more ego-centric, whereas the social network perspective is more socio-centric.
• The social network perspective looks primarily at dyadic exchanges with the focal organization and tends to ignore indirect ties beyond the focal firm.

Q13. Peer Influence and Network Formation

Which of the following statements about peer influence are true (select all that apply)?

• “The Strength of Weak Ties” refers to the idea that weak ties often bridge groups and bring people into contact with new information they might not otherwise access.
• According to peer influence, the people we associate with affect us; they lead us to act in ways we wouldn’t otherwise act.
• Peer influence refers to how relations influence behavior.
• Work on peer influence has shown that weak ties diffuse attitudes and behaviors better than strong ties, both within an organization and between organizations.

Q14. Network Analysis of Organizations

True or false: In Network Analysis, “reciprocity” is the idea that proximity breeds ties.

• True
• False

Q15. Networks Forms of Organization

Which of the following are reasons that network forms arise (select all that apply)?

• An organization lacks a specific capacity, so it connects with another organization that can do the work on its behalf.
• Modern technology makes partnering easier and more feasible.
• Organizations want to remain wholly independent.
• Clients want integrated services, rather than services from multiple, disconnected organizations.

Q16. Network Forms of Organization

Which of the following statements about the network form of organization are true (select all that apply)?

• Network organization can allow for greater responsiveness to citizens and consumers.
• Network organization can facilitate experimentation with different alternatives for service provision.
• Network organization can help an organization focus on its technical core.
• Trust and intense competition are key to building good partnerships.

Module 9 – Quiz

Q1. Neoinstitutional Theory and Application

True or false: Adopting a rationalized myth or following an organizational script may confer legitimacy upon an organization, even when it is unclear whether adopting the myth or following the script actually improves an organization’s efficiency or technical performance.

• True
• False

Q2. Institutions and Organizational Legitimacy

Which of the following statements are most in line with Neoinstitutional Theory, as opposed to Resource Dependence Theory (select all that apply)?

• Organizational fields are the primary unity of analysis.
• Resources are critical for organizational survival.
• Organizations in a given field will tend to look increasingly similar as rational myths spread.
• Legitimacy is critical for organizational survival.
• Organizations change as managers attempt to minimize their dependence on other organizations and their resources.

Q3. Neoinstitutional Theory Management and Applications

Which of the following are strategies for managing institutional environments (select all that apply)?

• Avoiding the institutional environment by disguising or buffering the organization from inspection.
• Acquiescing or conforming to the institutional environment.
• Manipulating the institutional environment by developing linkages with important sources of power that improve an organization’s bargaining ability.
• Defying or resisting the institutional environment by adopting norms and interests that go against those of the surrounding environment.

Q4. Neoinstitutional Theory and Application

Which of the following statements about decoupling are true (select all that apply)?

• Decoupling refers to the disconnect between more formal, symbolic appearances and more practical, day-to-day operations.
• Decoupling enables an organization to respond to inconsistent institutional pressures.
• Decoupling protects or buffers the formal structure of an organization from the uncertainties and ambiguities of the technical core.
• Decoupling rarely occurs in organizations.

Q5. Neoinstitutional Theory and Application

Which of the following best describes the idea of mimetic isomorphism?

• Organizations in a given field increasingly resemble each other because of the pressures exerted by societal expectations and by other organizations that control critical resources.
• When faced with ambiguity about how to behave, organizations model themselves on other organizations that appear legitimate and successful. As a result, organizations tend to resemble each other.
• Organizations in a given field resemble each other because they are adhering to the same professional norms and codes.

Q6. Neoinstitutional Theory and Application

True or false: Rationalized myths are institutional rules that organizations incorporate (often ceremonially) into their formal structure because they are believed to be rational.

• True
• False

Q7. Neoinstitutional Theory and Organizational Legitimacy

Which of the following statements about Regulatory Institutions are true (select all that apply)?

• Regulatory institutions are one way of controlling an organization’s behavior and rendering it into scripted forms that are deemed legitimate and ideal.
• Regulatory institutions influence organizational behavior through shared, informal guidelines about what actions are appropriate and how one should and should not behave.
• Regulatory institutions constrain organizational behavior through explicit rules, laws, and incentives.
• Regulatory institutions are taken-for-granted behaviors and routines that are deeply ingrained. Because of regulatory institutions, alternative ways of doing things are often inconceivable.

Module 10 – Quiz

Q1. Population Ecology

True or false: Populations of organizations occupy the same niche to the extent that they depend on the same environmental resources.

• True
• False

Q2. Population Ecology

True or false: Population ecology assumes that an organizational variation that gets selected by the environment is selected because it is the optimal (i.e., best possible) fit for the environment.

• True
• False

Q3. Population Ecology

Which of the following statements about Organizational Ecology Theory are true (select all that apply)?

• Organizational Ecology focuses on environmental selection more than organizational adaptation.
• Organizational Ecology takes a rational system view of organizations.
• Organizational Ecology believes in a deterministic environment.

Q4. Population Ecology

True or false: In Population Ecology, a population is a class of organizations facing similar environmental vulnerabilities and sharing the same internal form or technical core.

• True
• False

Q5. Population Ecology

Which of the following are   s that can help a manager understand his or her organization’s fit with the environment (select all that apply)?

• What population is my organization in?
• What kind of change is occurring in my population?
• What niche is my organization in?
• What is the composition and distance between firms in my population?

Q6. Population Ecology

Which of the following are   s that organizational ecology attempts to answer (select all that apply)?

• What explains the diversity of organizations?
• Why do all organizations in a given field look pretty much the same?
• Where do different organizational forms come from?

Q7. Population Ecology

Which of the following statements are consistent with Resource Partitioning Theory (select all that apply)?

• According to Resource Partitioning Theory, who you are does not matter–all that matters is what you do.
• Specialist firms tend to be smaller and more flexible, making it easier for them to customize their products.
• Competition among large generalist organizations frees resources at the periphery that can be used by small specialist firms.

Q8. Population Ecology

True or false: A fundamental niche is a region of the resource space in which an organization can persist in the absence of competition.

• True
• False

Conclusion

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