Managing Project Risks and Changes Coursera Quiz Answers

All Weeks Managing Project Risks and Changes Coursera Quiz Answers

Managing Project Risks and Changes Week 2 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Module 2 Quiz

Q1. True or False: A project manager spends 75% of his or her time communicating.

• True
• False

Q2. Which item would most likely NOT be part of a basic communication plan:

• What they need to know.
• The amount of their annual bonus.
• The best medium for the communication.
• With whom to communicate.

Q3. Upward communication is communication to/from:

• Your direct reports.
• Your senior management.
• Your peers.
• Your social groups.

Q4. When you report project status you compare actual performance to:

• The performance of your competitors.
• The performance of other similar projects.
• The performance of previous projects.
• The planned performance or baseline.

Q5. True or False: Earned value integrates scope, schedule and budget and uses monetary values to assess project status.

• False
• True

Q6. You are beginning to staff your project. Which of the following will not be used in developing and/or communicating roles and responsibilities?

• Pareto chart
• Responsibility Assignment Matrix
• Organization chart
• WBS

Q7. Which of the following is not likely to be documented in a communications management plan?

• How information will be communicated
• Time frame and frequency of communication
• Person responsible for tracking risk events
• What information will be communicated

Q8. True or False: Effective project communication management creates a bridge between stakeholders based on a shared understanding of the project and the ongoing sharing of information needed for its success.

• True
• False

Q9. A Communications Management Plan does the following:

• Lays out a plan on how to communicate with your Project Sponsor and other organizations
• Coordinates an effort to communicate in meetings effectively
• Lays out the approach and method for delivering information effectively and efficiently.
• Coordinates the communication between project leaders and uninterested project members

Q10. Who should take the most responsibility for clear and effective communication?

• The sender and the receiver
• The sender
• The Communications Manager
• The receiver

Managing Project Risks and Changes Week 3 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Module 3 Quiz

Q1. The purpose of project risk management is to:

• Minimize the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to increase the likelihood or impact of positive events.
• Eliminate the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to decrease the likelihood or impact of positive events.
• Neutralize the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to neutralize the likelihood or impact of positive events.
• Minimize the likelihood or the impact of positive events or threats to your project and to increase the likelihood or impact of negative events.

Q2. True or False: A positive risk is an opportunity; a negative risk is a threat.

• False
• True

Q3. When you and your team know that a negative risk has a high likelihood of occurring and it will be very impactful if it does:

• You should not document the risk; it will upset your stakeholders.
• You should develop a response to handle this risk.
• You should wait a few weeks and see what changes.
• You should all hope this risk does not occur.

Q4. If the response you choose is to avoid a risk this means that:

• You change your plans so that you eliminate the risk.
• You note the risk but do not talk about it.
• You simply do not consider the risk.
• You cancel the entire project.

Q5. Once you and your team identify and assess risks and develop responses you:

• Pay close attention to the risks identified and do not look for new risks.
• Only update your risk register when you are preparing to share it with your stakeholders.
• Continue to identify and monitor risks for the remainder of the project.
• Have completed your risk management responsibilities.

Q6. In a project context, risk is defined as:

• The impact of not completing the project on time and within budget.
• An uncertain event that, if it occurs, will have a positive or negative effect on at least one project objective.
• The probability of an event having a positive or negative effect on at least one project objective.
• An uncertain event that, if it occurs, will have a negative effect on at least one project objective.

Q7. The Risk Management Plan is a subsidiary to the __________ document.

• Project Communications Plan
• Project Management Plan
• Project Scope Statement Plan
• Project Stakeholder Plan

Q8. A useful tool in identifying risks is the SWOT analysis. What does SWOT stand for?

• Strengths, opportunities, winners, and threats
• Scope, opportunities, weaknesses, and time
• Strengths, opportunities, weaknesses, and threats
• Strengths, obstacles, weaknesses, and threats

Q9. True or False: The primary output from the identification of risks is the risk register.

• False
• True

Q10. During a risk brainstorming session a team member identifies a risk. This particular risk does not seem to belong to any of the categories in you Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS). How should you respond?

• Ignore him and move on to another risk identified by a different team member.
• Chastise him for making up risks which cannot exist because there is not a category for such risks.
• Record the list in the risk register, discuss potential responses and make a note to update the RBS.
• Thank him for his work, but inform him that the risk cannot be included because it does not fit any of the categories defined in the RBS.

Managing Project Risks and Changes Week 4 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Module 4 Quiz

Q1. Which one of these situations most closely represents scope creep:

• The project scope changes through the use of a formal change control process.
• The project scope keeps changing and team members are not sure why and the project seems like it will never end.
• The scope of the project is clearly agreed upon by the key project stakeholders.
• The project scope was used to create a WBS that was used to create estimates and a schedule.

Q2. True or False: Unregulated changes allow for innovation and flexibility. Regulating changes causes a lack of creativity.

• True
• False

Q3. Which of these types of changes should be discouraged as a poor project practice:

• Another project team is doing similar work and is farther along than your project.
• A team member discovers an issue and it makes good business sense to correct the issue as part of the project.
• Stakeholders did not take the time to define scope earlier in the project.
• A new way to handle a problem is discovered after scope was documented and approved.

Q4. A good change process will:

• Require the same level of approval for all changes.
• Be very complex in order to discourage changes.
• Allow the project manager to approve all changes.
• Have change thresholds that are appropriate for the type of change.

Q5. The purpose of capturing lessons learned is:

• To show stakeholders how difficult the project was so that next time their demands will not be so high.
• To capture what went well so that you can recreate the good and to capture what could have gone better so that next time it will go better.
• To document who performed well on the project and who did not so that poor performers can be punished.
• To show that you are following project management best practices and therefore you are a superior project manager.

Q6. To ensure control over the incidence and frequency of change, the project manager establishes a:

• Change control process
• Responsibility assignment matrix
• Work procedure schedule
• Work breakdown structure

Q7. Your project team is customer focused and often agrees to incorporate many small scope changes throughout the project execution. The changes are documented in an issues log. Which of the following is not a potential problem?

• Changes may not be integrated across the whole project
• Management of product specifications and configuration become more difficult.
• Many small changes may accumulate to create trouble for one of the project objectives.
• Changes with impacts on cost or time will be elevated to the Change Control Board.

Q8. True or False: In the context of a project, change is always a bad thing.

• False
• True

Q9. Scope creep results in:

• On-time deliverables, escalation of costs, and increase in project complexity.
• Completion delays, decrease in costs, and increase in project complexity.
• Completion delays, escalation of costs, and increase in project complexity.
• Completion delays, escalation of costs, and decrease in project complexity.

Q10. A project manager can defend against scope creep with a good ___________!

• Change control process
• Risk management plan
• Procurement process
• Project management plan

Managing Project Risks and Changes Week 5 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Final Exam

Q1. Which item would most likely NOT be part of a basic communication plan:

• What they need to know.
• The best medium for the communication.
• The amount of their annual bonus.
• With whom to communicate.

Q2. Upward communication is communication to/from:

• Your direct reports.
• Your social groups.
• Your peers.
• Your senior management.

Q3. When you report project status you compare actual performance to:

• The performance of your competitors.
• The planned performance or baseline.
• The performance of other similar projects.
• The performance of previous projects.

Q4. You are beginning to staff your project. Which of the following will not be used in developing and/or communicating roles and responsibilities?

• Pareto chart
• Organization chart
• WBS
• Responsibility Assignment Matrix

Q5. Which of the following is not likely to be documented in a communications management plan?

• How information will be communicated
• Time frame and frequency of communication
• Person responsible for tracking risk events
• What information will be communicated

Q6. A Communications Management Plan does the following:

• Lays out the approach and method for delivering information effectively and efficiently.
• Coordinates the communication between project leaders and uninterested project members
• Lays out a plan on how to communicate with your Project Sponsor and other organizations
• Coordinates and effort to communicate in meetings effectively

Q7. Who should take the most responsibility for clear and effective communication?

• The sender
• The sender and the receiver
• The Communications Manager
• The receiver

Q8. The purpose of project risk management is to:

• Eliminate the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to decrease the likelihood or impact of positive events.
• Minimize the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to increase the likelihood or impact of positive events.
• Minimize the likelihood or the impact of positive events or threats to your project and to increase the likelihood or impact of negative events.
• Neutralize the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to neutralize the likelihood or impact of positive events.

Q9. True or False: A positive risk is an opportunity; a negative risk is a threat.

• True
• False

Q10. When you and your team know that a negative risk has a high likelihood of occurring and it will be very impactful if it does:

• You should wait a few weeks and see what changes.
• You should not document the risk; it will upset your stakeholders.
• You should all hope this risk does not occur.
• You should develop a response to handle this risk.

Q11. If the response you choose is to avoid a risk this means that:

• You simply do not consider the risk.
• You note the risk but do not talk about it.
• You change your plans so that you eliminate the risk.
• You cancel the entire project.

Q12. Once you and your team identify and assess risks and develop responses you:

• Continue to identify and monitor risks for the remainder of the project.
• Pay close attention to the risks identified and do not look for new risks.
• Have completed your risk management responsibilities.
• Only update your risk register when you are preparing to share it with your stakeholders.

Q13. In a project context, risk is defined as:

• The probability of an event having a positive or negative affect on at least one project objective.
• An uncertain event that, if it occurs, will have a negative affect on at least one project objective.
• The impact of not completing the project on time and within budget.
• An uncertain event that, if it occurs, will have a positive or negative affect on at least one project objective.

Q14. The Risk Management Plan is a subsidiary to the __________ document.

• Project Management Plan
• Project Stakeholder Plan
• Project Communications Plan
• Project Scope Statement Plan

Q15. A useful tool in identifying risks is the SWOT analysis. What does SWOT stand for?

• Strengths, opportunities, weaknesses, and threats
• Scope, opportunities, weaknesses, and time
• Strengths, opportunities, winners, and threats
• Strengths, obstacles, weaknesses, and threats

Q16. During a risk brainstorming session a team member identifies a risk. This particular risk does not seem to belong to any of the categories in you Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS). How should you respond?

• Record the list in the risk register, discuss potential responses and make a note to update the RBS.
• Chastise him for making up risks which cannot exist because there is not a category for such risks.
• Thank him for his work, but inform him that the risk cannot be included because it does not fit any of the categories defined in the RBS.
• Ignore him and move on to another risk identified by a different team member.

Q17. Which one of these situations most closely represents scope creep:

• The project scope keeps changing and team members are not sure why and the project seems like it will never end.
• The scope of the project is clearly agreed upon by the key project stakeholders.
• The project scope changes through the use of a formal change control process.
• The project scope was used to create a WBS that was used to create estimates and a schedule.

Q18. True or False: Unregulated changes allow for innovation and flexibility. Regulating changes causes a lack of creativity.

• True
• False

Q19. Which of these types of changes should be discouraged as a poor project practice:

• A new way to handle a problem is discovered after scope was documented and approved.
• A team member discovers an issue and it makes good business sense to correct the issue as part of the project.
• Because stakeholders did not take the time to define scope earlier in the project.
• Another project team is doing similar work and is farther along than your project.

Q20. A good change process will:

• Be very complex in order to discourage changes.
• Require the same level of approval for all changes.
• Allow the project manager to approve all changes.
• Have change thresholds that are appropriate for the type of change.

Q21. The purpose of capturing lessons learned is:

• To document who performed well on the project and who did not so that poor performers can be punished.
• To capture what went well so that you can recreate the good and to capture what could have gone better so that next time it will go better.
• To show stakeholders how difficult the project was so that next time their demands will not be so high.
• To show that you are following project management best practices and therefore you are a superior project manager.

Q22. To ensure control over the incidence and frequency of change, the project manager establishes a:

• Work breakdown structure
• Responsibility assignment matrix
• Change control process
• Work procedure schedule

Q23. Your project team is customer focused and often agrees to incorporate many small scope changes throughout the project execution. The changes are documented in an issues log. Which of the following is not a potential problem?

• Changes with impacts on cost or time will be elevated to the Change Control Board.
• Management of product specifications and configuration become more difficult.
• Changes may not be integrated across the whole project
• Many small changes may accumulate to create trouble for one of the project objectives.

Q24. Scope creep results in:

• Completion delays, escalation of costs, and decrease in project complexity.
• Completion delays, decrease in costs, and increase in project complexity.
• On-time deliverables, escalation of costs, and increase in project complexity.
• Completion delays, escalation of costs, and increase in project complexity.

Q25. A project manager can defend against scope creep with a good ___________!

• Change control process
• Procurement process
• Risk management plan
• Project management plan

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