All Weeks Drug Discovery Coursera Quiz Answers
Drug Discovery Week 01 Quiz Answers
Pharma and Biotech Quiz Answers
Q1. According to the videos, in what direction is the pharmaceutical and biotechnology industry headed?
- Innovation and cost reduction.
- Equity and Equality.
- Efficiency.
- Better and more powerful drugs.
Q2. In terms of pharmaceutical developments, why has there been a shift to countries such as Asia?
- A desire for cost reduction.
- A desire for increased STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics).
- A desire for more employment.
- A desire for a larger market.
Q3. Please observe the following graph:
As mentioned in the lectures, what is the main cause of the apparent rise in financial penalties in the U.S.?
- Escalating demands for medicine.
- Tight regulations.
- Patent Cliffs.
- Strengthening scientific base.
Q4. Which of the following are opportunities for the pharma market? (Choose 3)
- Strengthening Scientific base.
- Trade liberalization.
- Stronger Price controls.
- Healthcare reduction costs.
- Wireless Health.
Q5. According to the videos, who or what determines Pharma and Biotech innovation?
- The advancement of the field
- The customers
- The investors
- The cost of the drug
Q6. According to the videos, what is the ultimate future or direction of the Pharma company?
- Biomarkers.
- Diversity of drugs.
- Repurposing of drugs.
- Ultimate personalized medicine.
Q7. What type of product distribution model leads to siloed markets?
- Customer centered model
- Blockbuster model
- Specialist model
- Business model
Q8. What are the characteristics of the blockbuster model? (Choose 2)
- R&D – Silos
- Pricing – Pay for performance
- R&D – Nimble decision-making process
- Pricing – Depends on the market
Q9. According to the videos, what is disruptive innovation in pharma?
- Superiority in comparative trials.
- Reduce the cost of care.
- Cure a disease or prevent it.
- Improve the quality of life.
Q10. Payers are not going to pay a premium unless… (Choose 2)
- Drug shows disruptive innovation.
- Be better than other drugs in trials and be cost efficient.
- Reduce the cost of care.
- Improve the quality of life.
- Pharma race to develop new products, which all have the same mode of action.
Q11. What makes specialty drugs less costly to develop compared to most prevalent diseases?
- Lower standard for scientific evidence required for orphan drugs
- Clinical trials are smaller, only 100-200 subjects compared to several thousand
- Seven years of competition-free marketing for new orphan drugs
- Expedited reviews by the FDA and tax breaks
Drug Discovery Week 02 Quiz Answers
Drug Discovery: Proteomics, Genomics Quiz Answers
Q1. What is the current referred issue of the omnics era when Dr.Philip used the analogy about neglecting the “long tail”?
- Funders are demanding data sharing plans.
- DNA data is doubling every 5 months.
- No one is taking care of errors, complexity, etc of the massive genome data.
- Increased R&D spending but decrease in new drug approvals.
Q2. Data we obtain from analyzing organisms are not only getting ___ but also getting ____.
- Complex; More unstructured.
- Larger; More complex.
Q3. Metagenomics is the study of genetic material recovered directly from environmental samples. What was one of the biggest challenges with metagenomics as mentioned in lecture?
- We had to study human microbiomes.
- Almost all data captured is completely new and rich with data.
- Open sourcing data published.
- Establishing a data science major.
Q4. What is open source publishing?
- Giving out the source code of the code for the general public.
- Making information accessible to everyone.
- Acknowledgement of the author in a particular work.
Q5. What is the warning or problem with the massive amount of data growth and complexity?
- The data is too complex to analyze.
- Lack of proper genome sequencing methods.
- 30% of annotations in databases may be wrong.
- Not enough data scientists.
Q6. What is our current mentality in the drug discovery process that is impeding the process?
- One drug, multiple targets, multiple diseases.
- Maximize profit.
- One drug, one target, one disease.
- Heal as many people as possible.
Q7. Why is the single silver bullet mentality bad for the drug development process?
- Too risky for the company to invest in only one market.
- Compounds often bind to more than one target.
- Increases the time required to develop the drug.
Q8. How could computers aid in the unique processes of network pharmacology?
- Store massive protein data as databases to be analyzed later.
- Simulate and analyze biological networks.
- Calculate and aid in analysis of physiological processes.
- Computers cannot aid the process of network pharmacology because it cannot be as accurate as humans.
Q9. What is the major caution with working with systems pharmacology and computers?
- Openness is an alien culture to drug discovery.
- There is a general mistrust with computational approaches.
- Computers are too slow to deal with complexity.
Q10. Which of the following is a major limitation of metagenomics?
- Scientific interest
- Lack of data regarding function
- Functional annotation accuracy
- Information technology (IT) infrastructure
Q11. Off-target drug screening provides information on all of the following EXCEPT:
- A possible repositioning of a drug to treat a different disease
- Drug dose and frequency
- Reason a drug failed
- How to optimize a new chemical entity
Q12. Multiscale modeling of drug actions include all of the following EXCEPT:
- Knowledge representation and discovery and model integration
- Reconstruction, analysis and simulation of biological networks
- Understanding of dynamics and kinetics of protein-ligand interactions
- Systems pharmacology
Compound Selection and Pre-clinical Studies Quiz Answers
Q1. What is the success rate from research to market?
- 1 in 10
- 1 in 100
- 1 in 1000
Q2. Why are pharmaceutical companies placing focus (such as improvements and cost reduction) on the research and development branch?
- Better R&D means better drugs which means improved sells.
- R&D is too competitive and over inflated with non-productive workers.
- R&D takes the longest and has the highest investment in the drug development cycle.
- R&D always requires large attention.
Q3. Which is the best definition of the term First-In-Class?
- The first product on shelves that customer will naturally get.
- A monopoly on a specific medical brand.
- The first molecule designed to tackle a new problem.
Q4. The videos mentioned a desire for robust efficacy in animal models for R&D requirements. What does it mean to have robust efficacy in animal models?
- Have reproducible effect in a dose response manner: small dose => small repose, large dose=> large response.
- Joint ownership and responsibility of the animal tests.
- Show a problem is able to be addressed by a specific variable threshold.
Q5. When a medicine is designed for oral intake use, would the testing process test the medicine in non-oral intake ways?
- No
- Yes
Q6. What is the Ames Assay?
- A type of test within the assay flow to detect the genetic toxicity of the compound.
- A type of report required for the composition of the chemical compound.
- Another name for tier 3 of the research testing.
Q7. Which is the best description of what X-Ray crystallography does?
- Determines the genetic toxicity of a compound.
- Finds the structure of the compound.
- Determines the half life of the compound.
Q8. Of the following questions, which best represents the problem that Pharmacokinetic is trying to tackle?
- How does the oxidative process work on the compound?
- What is going on in the body when the compound enters into it?
- How will your drug interact with other drugs on the market?
- How does the drug affect the DNA?
Q9. Which of the following statements is true? (Select 2)
- Small molecule drug candidates should activate both hERG and CYP450 proteins
- One of the FDA requirements for small molecule drug candidates is to not inhibit hERG channel.
- Small molecule drug candidates should not inhibit the cytochrome CYP450
Q10. What is SPR (surface plasmon resonance)?
- A method to measure the effect of temperature on protein stability.
- A method to measure the change in fluorescence of a protein upon a small molecule binding,
- A label-free method which is used to characterize the kinetics of protein-ligand interactions. It provides the values for Kd, Ka, stoichiometry and kon/koff parameters.
Q11. Which of the following is considered a third tier study?
- Ames mutagenicity study
- Receptor binding study
- Dose escalation pharmacokinetic study
- Animal model protein binding study
Q12. Which of the following is an inappropriate criteria for drug discovery?
- Suitable for oral, once daily dosing
- Unknown efficacy in rodent automimmune disease models
- Structurally unique molecule
- Target selectivity
Q13. All of the following are common in vivo models for pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamic profiling EXCEPT:
- Beagle dogs
- Bobtail Cats
- Cynomolgus monkeys
- Sprague-Dawley rats
Q14. Which of the following are typical compound criteria in research?
- Efficacy in relevant animal models
- Focus on First-in-Class or Best-in-Class
- Target selectivity >1,000 fold selective vs. closely related target
- Structurally unique molecule
Q15. Which of the following is used as an antitarget to evaluate potential cardiotoxicity?
- Human 5 major P450s
- hERG
- Ames mutagenicity test
- HepG2 cytotoxicity panel
Q16. Which of the following parameters are typical in pharmakokinetics and pharmakodynamics?
- Induction of cytochrome P450s
- Inhibition of cytochrome P450s
- Interaction with other drugs
- Half-life in blood
Q17. Which of the following preclinical tests and animal methods were used in testing a compound for treatment of diabetes?
- Monkeys
- Non-Obese/Diabetic rats
- Different mouse strains
- Immunehistochemical staining of insuline in microscopic sections of Langerhans’ islets in the pancreas
Drug Discovery Week 03 Quiz Answers
Challenges in Fragment Based Drug Discovery for Protein Kinases Quiz Answers
Q1. All of the following are suitable target directed screening methods EXCEPT:
- Stem cells
- Compound libraries
- Diversity/iterative screening (HTS)
- Gene family platforms
Q2. All of the following are perceived or real challenges to fragment-based drug discovery EXCEPT:
- Lipophilicity of a drug
- Drug Size
- Lack of advanced cellular assays
- Modest fragment libraries
Q3. All of the following are suitable for an oral drug candidate EXCEPT:
- Molecular weight (MW) less than 400
- Partition coefficient log P (cLogp) less than 3
- Lipophilic ligand efficiency (LLE) greater than 5
- LEAN less than 0.27
Q4. cLogP is a measure of compound lipophilicity. What compound property does P represent?
- Permeability
- Partition coefficient
- Pressure
- Probability of binding
Which of the following is the right value for a compound to be suitable drug candidate?
- cLogP > 5
- cLogP > 0.27
- cLogP < 3
- cLogP < 5
Q6. The equation
LLE =-log(IC50) – cLogP
describes the relationship between the value of Lipophilic Ligand Efficiency (LLE) and some compound properties.
What does IC50 represent?
- The compound concentration required to kill 50% of tested animal population
- The compound concentration which inhibits 50% of target in vitro
- The compound concentration which activates 50% of target in vitro
Q7. All of the following are correct statements EXCEPT which one?
- Economic and cost-related factors are contributing to about 1/3 of problems in drug development
- The presence of chiral centres in a compound makes it a bad drug candidate
- Pharmacokinetics and drug metabolism is a significant attrition parameter in drug discovery and development
- Clinical safety is an attrition factor for drug discovery and development.
Q8. Compound efficacy contributes for about 1/3 of the failed cases in small molecule drug discovery. Which of the following statements defines the meaning of Efficacy?
- Compound binds on its target and results in the treatment/cure of the pathological condition and delivers the expected therapeutic results
- Compound binds strongly on the protein target
- Compound binds on the protein target, blocks its function in the body but does not have the expected therapeutic/treating effect.
Q9. All EXCEPT one are correct statements. Please identify the wrong statement.
Medicinal chemists are facing the following challenges when they synthesise compounds that are candidates for drug discovery:
- Compounds should be colored
- Compounds should have MW smaller than 400
- Compounds should have chiral centres and a good balance between Nitrogen and Oxygen
- Compounds should have ideally low lipophilicity
Q10. What is the main goal of the Fragment Based Drug Discovery approach?
- To identify planar compounds which bind to more than one closely-related targets
- To create a large library of compounds with MW<500
- To go from small heterocyclic fragments with weak/medium binding affinity to a compound with MW below 400, tight binding (IC50<10nM) and specific/selective binding.
Concepts in Drug Delivery Quiz Answers
Q1. Which of the following poses a challenge to the oral absorption of drugs?
- All stated responses are correct
- Drug Solubility
- Gut and 1st Pass (liver) enzyme stability
- Drug Permeability
Q2. Which of the following is a physiologic factor that influences the oral absorption of a drug?
- Protein binding
- Kidney function
- Gastric emptying rate
- Respiratory function
Q3. Which of the following is a disadvantage of nasel systemic delivery?
- Irritation, inflammation or toxicity
- Large surface area
- Avoidance of 1st pass loss
- Rapid absorption
Q4. ADME refers to what?
- absorption dilution metabolism execution
- absorption distribution metabolism excretion
Q5. What is “kinetics” referring to in “pharmacokinetics”?
- how fast the drugs travel through the body
- the concentration of the drugs in the body
- the effects of the drugs on the body
Q6. Which three of the following are challenges to oral absorption? (select 3)
- drugs have to navigate in all the environments of your GI tract
- drugs must stay stable when getting through the liver
- varying ph levels trough outs the GI tract
- varying temperatures throughout the GI tract
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