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AWS Cloud Technical Essentials Week 01 Quiz Answers
Q1. What are the four main factors you should take into consideration when choosing a Region?
Answer: Latency, price, service availability, and compliance
Explanation: These are the primary factors a solutions architect considers when selecting a region to ensure the solution is optimized for cost, performance, and regulations.
Q2. True or false: Every action you take in AWS is an API call.
Answer: True
Explanation: Every action performed in AWS, whether through the management console, CLI, or SDKs, is essentially an API call.
Q3. Which of the following best describes the relationship between Regions, Availability Zones and data centers?
Answer: Regions are clusters of Availability Zones. Availability Zones are clusters of data centers.
Explanation: AWS regions are composed of multiple Availability Zones (AZs), which in turn consist of one or more data centers.
Q4. Which of the following is a benefit of cloud computing?
Answer: Go global in minutes.
Explanation: Cloud computing enables rapid deployment of infrastructure and services globally without significant upfront investments.
Q5. A company wants to manage AWS services by using the command line and automating them with scripts. What should the company use to accomplish this goal?
Answer: AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI)
Explanation: The CLI allows users to manage AWS services and automate tasks using scripts.
Q6. What is a best practice when securing the AWS account root user?
Answer: Enable multi-factor authentication
Explanation: Enabling MFA adds a critical layer of security to the AWS root account, protecting it from unauthorized access.
Q7. A solutions architect is consulting for a company. When users in the company authenticate to a corporate network, they want to be able to use AWS without needing to sign in again. Which AWS identity should the solutions architect recommend for this use case?
Answer: IAM Role
Explanation: IAM roles enable federated access, allowing users to authenticate through their corporate network and access AWS without additional sign-ins.
Q8. Which of the following can be found in an AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) policy?
Answer: Effect & Action
Explanation: IAM policies define the Effect (allow or deny) and the Action (specific API operations permitted).
Q9. True or False: AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies can restrict the actions of the AWS account root user.
Answer: False
Explanation: The root user has unrestricted access to the AWS account and cannot be limited by IAM policies.
Q10. According to the AWS shared responsibility model, which of the following is the responsibility of AWS?
Answer: Managing the hardware, software, and networking components that run AWS services, such as the physical servers, host operating systems, virtualization layers, and AWS networking components.
Explanation: AWS ensures the security of the infrastructure running its services, while customers are responsible for securing their data and applications.
Q11. Which of the following is recommended if a company has a single AWS account, and multiple people who work with AWS services in that account?
Answer: The company should create an AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) group, grant the group permissions to perform specific job functions, and assign users to a group, or use IAM roles.
Explanation: IAM groups and roles simplify permission management and ensure security.
Q12. True or False: According to the AWS shared responsibility model, a customer is responsible for security in the cloud.
Answer: True
Explanation: Customers are responsible for securing their applications, configurations, and data in the cloud.
Q13. Which of the following provides temporary credentials (that expire after a defined period of time) to AWS services?
Answer: IAM role
Explanation: IAM roles provide time-limited credentials for accessing AWS resources.
Q14. A user is hosting a solution on Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2). Which networking component is needed to create a private network for their AWS resources?
Answer: Virtual private cloud (VPC)
Explanation: A VPC enables the creation of isolated, secure private networks for hosting AWS resources.
AWS Cloud Technical Essentials Week 02 Quiz Answers
Q1. Which of the following pieces of information do you need to create a Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)?
- The subnet it will reside in.
- The Availability Zone it will reside in.
- The AWS Region it will reside in.
- The group of subnets it will reside in.
Explanation: VPCs are created in specific AWS Regions.
Q2. Which of the following can a route table be attached to?
- AWS Accounts
- Availability Zone
- Subnets
- Regions
Explanation: Route tables are associated with subnets in a VPC.
Q3. A company wants to allow resources in a public subnet to communicate with the internet. Which of the following must the company do to meet this requirement?
Answer: B and C (Attach an internet gateway to their VPC; Create a route in a route table to the internet gateway).
Explanation: An internet gateway allows public subnets to access the internet. A corresponding route ensures that traffic can be directed through the gateway.
Q4. What is the compute as a service (CaaS) model?.
Answer: The CaaS model offers computing resources (such as virtual machines that run on servers in data centers) on demand, by using virtual services.
Explanation: CaaS provides scalable, on-demand computing power without requiring users to manage physical servers.
Q5. Which statement about the default settings of a security group is TRUE?
Answer: Blocks all inbound traffic and allows all outbound traffic by default.
Explanation: Security groups in AWS follow this rule, enhancing security by limiting access to inbound traffic while permitting outbound traffic.
Q6. What does an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance type indicate?
Answer: Instance family and instance size.
Explanation: Instance types define the computational capabilities and resources (CPU, memory) available for specific use cases.
Q7. What is the difference between using AWS Fargate or Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) as the compute platform for Amazon ECS?
Answer: With AWS Fargate, AWS manages and provisions the underlying infrastructure for hosting containers.
Explanation: Fargate abstracts infrastructure management, whereas EC2 requires users to manage the EC2 instances running their containers.
Q8. Which statement about serverless is TRUE?
Answer: Users do not pay for idle resources.
Explanation: Serverless architecture bills users only for the actual compute resources used during code execution.
Q9. True or False: AWS Lambda is always the best solution when running applications on AWS.
Answer: False.
Explanation: While AWS Lambda is suitable for many serverless applications, certain workloads may require other services like EC2 or ECS depending on specific needs.
Q10. Which compute service does Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) provide?
Answer: Virtual machines (VMs).
Explanation: Amazon EC2 offers resizable compute capacity in the cloud in the form of virtual machines.
Q11. Which stage of the instance lifecycle is an instance in when the account starts to accumulate charges?
Answer: When an instance is in a running stage.
Explanation: Charges for an EC2 instance start accruing when it is running and consuming resources.
Q12. Which component of the c5.4xlarge instance determines the instance family and generation number?
Answer: c5.
Explanation: The “c5” in the instance type indicates the instance family and generation, denoting its performance characteristics.
Q13. Which container runtime can be used to host a container on an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance?
Answer: Docker.
Explanation: Docker is a widely-used container runtime supported by EC2 instances for hosting and managing containers.
Q14. What is an example of an event that invokes an AWS Lambda function?
Answer: An upload of a file to the Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) source bucket.
Explanation: AWS Lambda can be triggered by various events, such as changes in S3 buckets, to execute custom functions.
Q15. True or False: With serverless, users do not need to provision and manage servers.
Answer: True.
Explanation: Serverless computing automatically manages the server infrastructure, allowing users to focus solely on application code.
Q16. True or False: All AWS services require users to configure a virtual private cloud (VPC).
Answer: False.
Explanation: Some AWS services operate outside of VPCs, such as S3, which can function without explicit VPC configuration.
Q17. An engineer is working with networks in the AWS Cloud. What should the engineer use to configure the size of their network?
Answer: Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) notation.
Explanation: CIDR notation is used to define IP address ranges and determine the size of networks within a VPC.
Q18. What is the difference between network access control lists (ACLs) and security groups?
Answer: By default, network ACLs allow incoming and outgoing traffic from a subnet. Users can change these settings to provide an additional layer of security. However, the default configurations of security groups block all inbound traffic and allow all outbound traffic.
Explanation: ACLs operate at the subnet level and can allow or deny traffic, while security groups provide instance-level security configurations.
AWS Cloud Technical Essentials Week 03 Quiz Answers
Q1. What is a typical use case for Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)?
Answer: Object storage for media hosting
Explanation: Amazon S3 is an object storage service commonly used for storing and serving media files such as images, videos, and backups.
Q2. A company needs a storage layer for a high-transaction relational database on an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance. Which service should the company use?
Answer: Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)
Explanation: Amazon EBS provides persistent block storage optimized for high-transaction workloads, making it ideal for relational databases.
Q3. True or False: Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes are considered ephemeral storage.
Answer: False
Explanation: EBS volumes provide persistent storage, retaining data even after the EC2 instance is stopped or terminated.
Q4. Which storage tier should the solutions architect suggest for storing 7 years of patient information that is rarely accessed?
Answer: Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive
Explanation: S3 Glacier Deep Archive is the most cost-effective storage option for long-term, infrequently accessed data.
Q5. True or False: Object storage is the best storage solution for applications that need to frequently update specific small sections of a file.
Answer: False
Explanation: Object storage like S3 is optimized for storing entire objects. Block storage is better for frequent updates to small sections of data.
Q6. True or False: A Multi-AZ deployment is beneficial when users want to increase the availability of their database.
Answer: True
Explanation: Multi-AZ deployment provides high availability by automatically replicating data across multiple availability zones.
Q7. Which task of running and operating the database are users responsible for when they use Amazon RDS?
Answer: Optimizing the database
Explanation: Amazon RDS manages infrastructure, patching, and backups, but users must optimize database performance.
Q8. Which of the following are common use cases for file storage? (Choose TWO.)
Answer: User home directories; Large content repositories
Explanation: File storage like Amazon EFS is well-suited for storing user directories and large, shared content repositories.
Q9. True or False: The IT department in a company can attach Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes to Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) to store data in a bucket.
Answer: False
Explanation: EBS and S3 serve different purposes; EBS provides block storage, while S3 offers object storage, and they are not directly attachable.
Q10. Which of the following instance families does Amazon RDS support? (Choose TWO.)
Answer: General purpose; Memory optimized
Explanation: RDS supports these families for balancing performance and memory needs across various database workloads.
Q11. Which service should the solutions architect recommend for temporarily storing frequently changing and non-persistent data?
Answer: Amazon EC2 Instance Store
Explanation: Instance Store provides temporary, non-persistent storage that is ideal for caching or temporary data needs.
Q12. Which database is a non-relational database that stores data in key-value pairs, and is a good fit for hosting simple lookup tables?
Answer: Amazon DynamoDB
Explanation: DynamoDB is a key-value and document database suitable for quick lookups and simple data structures.
Q13. Which core component of Amazon DynamoDB corresponds to a column in a relational database table?
Answer: Attribute
Explanation: Attributes in DynamoDB are equivalent to columns in relational databases, holding individual data values for items.
Q14. Which AWS database service is best suited for use cases such as social networking or recommendation engines?
Answer: Amazon Neptune
Explanation: Neptune is a graph database designed for complex relationships, such as those in social networks and recommendation systems.
AWS Cloud Technical Essentials Week 04 Quiz Answers
Q1. What are the three components of Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling?
Answer: Launch template, scaling policies, EC2 Auto Scaling group
Explanation: EC2 Auto Scaling uses a launch template or configuration for instance settings, scaling policies to adjust capacity, and Auto Scaling groups to manage instances.
Q2. Which of the following features are included in Elastic Load Balancing (ELB)?
Answer: A and C (Automatic scaling, Integration with Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling)
Explanation: ELB integrates with EC2 Auto Scaling for automatic scaling, distributing traffic among instances efficiently.
Q3. True or False: When a user uses Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) with an Auto Scaling group, it is not necessary to manually register individual Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances with the load balancer.
Answer: True
Explanation: Instances launched by Auto Scaling groups are automatically registered with the associated ELB.
Q4. Which Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) type should be used for this use case?
Answer: Application Load Balancer
Explanation: Application Load Balancer supports path-based routing, allowing target selection based on URL paths.
Q5. What are the two ways that an application can be scaled?
Answer: Vertically and horizontally
Explanation: Vertical scaling increases an instance’s capacity, while horizontal scaling adds more instances.
Q6. Which elements in Amazon CloudWatch dashboards can be used to view and analyze metrics?
Answer: Widgets
Explanation: Widgets in CloudWatch dashboards display metrics and logs for analysis.
Q7. What are the possible states of a metric alarm in Amazon CloudWatch?
Answer: OK, ALARM, INSUFFICIENT_DATA
Explanation: CloudWatch alarms transition between these states based on defined thresholds and data availability.
Q8. What kind of data can a company collect with VPC Flow Logs?
Answer: Data about network traffic that comes into and out of a virtual private cloud (VPC)
Explanation: VPC Flow Logs capture information about IP traffic flows within a VPC.
Q9. What is the benefit of monitoring on AWS?
Answer: Monitoring increases speed and agility
Explanation: AWS monitoring provides insights to optimize resource usage and performance, enabling quick responses to changes.
Q10. True or False: When a company redesigns an application by using a serverless service on AWS, they might not need to configure networking components, such as a virtual private cloud (VPC), subnets, and security groups.
Answer: True
Explanation: Serverless services like AWS Lambda abstract infrastructure management, reducing the need for manual networking configuration.
AWS Cloud Technical Essentials End of Course Assessment Answers
Q1. What are the four main factors that a solutions architect should consider when they must choose a Region?
Answer: Latency, price, service availability, and compliance
Explanation: These factors ensure optimal performance, cost efficiency, adherence to legal requirements, and access to necessary services.
Q2. Which statement BEST describes the relationship between Regions, Availability Zones, and data centers?
Answer: Regions are clusters of Availability Zones. Availability Zones are clusters of data centers.
Explanation: AWS Regions consist of multiple isolated Availability Zones, each containing one or more data centers for redundancy.
Q3. Which of the following can be found in an AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) policy?
Answer: A and B (Effect, Action)
Explanation: IAM policies define permissions using Effect (allow or deny) and Action (specific API operations).
Q4. Which AWS identity should the solutions architect recommend for this use case?
Answer: IAM Role
Explanation: IAM roles allow temporary access to AWS resources without needing to sign in again, suitable for federated access.
Q5. A company wants to allow resources in a public subnet to communicate with the internet. Which of the following must the company do to meet this requirement?
Answer: B and C (Attach an internet gateway to their VPC, Create a route in a route table to the internet gateway)
Explanation: Both steps are essential for enabling internet communication from a public subnet.
Q6. What does an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance type indicate?
Answer: Instance family and instance size
Explanation: EC2 instance types define the hardware specifications, categorized by family (use case) and size (capacity).
Q7. What is a typical use case for Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)?
Answer: Object storage for media hosting
Explanation: S3 is ideal for storing and delivering media files like images, videos, and backups due to its scalability and accessibility.
Q8. Which storage tier should the solutions architect suggest?
Answer: Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive
Explanation: This tier offers the lowest-cost storage for rarely accessed data, perfect for long-term retention like patient records.
Q9. Which task of running and operating the database are users responsible for when they use Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)?
Answer: Optimizing the database
Explanation: While RDS manages infrastructure and maintenance, users remain responsible for database optimization.
Q10. True or false: A Multi-AZ deployment is beneficial when users want to increase the availability of their database.
Answer: True
Explanation: Multi-AZ deployments enhance availability by automatically replicating data across different Availability Zones.
Q11. What are the three components of Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling?
Answer: Launch template, scaling policies, EC2 Auto Scaling group
Explanation: These components define instance settings, scaling rules, and manage scaling operations.
Q12. Which Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) type should be used for this use case?
Answer: Application Load Balancer
Explanation: Application Load Balancer supports routing decisions based on URL paths, making it ideal for this scenario.
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AWS Fundamentals: Addressing Security Risk
All Quiz Answers of the AWS Fundamentals Specialization Course
Course 01: AWS Cloud Technical Essentials
Course 02: AWS Fundamentals: Addressing Security Risk
Course 03: AWS Fundamentals: Migrating to the Cloud
Course 04: AWS Fundamentals: Building Serverless Applications
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