Six Sigma Tools for Improve and Control Coursera Quiz Answers

All Weeks Six Sigma Tools for Improve and Control Coursera Quiz Answers

Six Sigma Tools for Improve and Control Week 1 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Correlation and Regression Practice

Q1. If you are studying the relationship between the number of hours of overtime assigned at your facility and the number of defects in your product, what would the INDEPENDENT variable be?

• Neither the hours of overtime assigned nor the number of defects in your product
• Hours of overtime assigned
• Number of defects in your product
• Both the hours of overtime assigned and the number of defects in your product

Q2. A scatter plot in which the plotted points are clustered approximately into a straight line from the bottom left to the top right of the graph is displaying which of the following:

• Positive correlation
• Negative correlation
• No correlation
• Bimodal correlation

Q3. If a scatter diagram is created plotting vegetable garden square footage vs. crop yield, what would you expect the shape of the resulting plot to show?

• Positive correlation
• No correlation
• Negative correlation
• Circular correlation

Q4. Which of the following statements are true about correlation?

• The correlation coefficient can only range from 0 to +1
• The lower the correlation coefficient is, the weaker the correlation is
• r can range from -1 to 1
• A positive correlation coefficient means that as the independent variable decreases, the dependent variable increases

Q5. In the equation for basic linear regression, what does the term “a” represent?

• The y intercept
• The x intercept
• The slope of the line
• The error

Q6. In statistical analysis, the equation y=a+bx is most commonly used for what?

• The binomial distribution
• Descriptive statistics
• The normal distribution
• The linear regression equation

Q7. What is the method used to find the equation of the regression line called?

• Least squares method
• Perfect square method
• Statistical analysis method
• Normal distribution method

Q8. You collect sample data to calculate the relationship between overtime hours assigned at your facility and the number of defects in your product. Using data ranging from 50 hours of overtime to 200 hours of overtime, you obtain the regression equation for defects of 0.75 + 0.02x with a high correlation coefficient. How many defects would you predict if 100 hours of overtime are assigned? (Round to the nearest 100^th of a defect)

• 2.00
• 75.02
• 2.75
• You cannot use this regression equation to answer the  

Q9. You collect sample data to calculate the relationship between overtime hours assigned at your facility and the number of defects in your product. Using data ranging from 50 hours of overtime to 200 hours of overtime, you obtain the regression equation for defects of 0.75 + 0.02x with a high correlation coefficient. How many defects would you predict if 10,000 hours of overtime are assigned? (Round to the nearest 100^th of a defect)

• You cannot use this regression equation to answer the  
• 2.75
• 275.00
• 200.75

Q10. In which phase is regression analysis LEAST likely to be used?

• Measure
• Define
• Analyze
• Improve

Quiz 2: Correlation and Regression Graded Quiz

Q1. If you are studying the relationship between the age of the manufacturing equipment at your facility and the hours of downtime of that equipment, what would the DEPENDENT variable be?

• Age of the manufacturing equipment
• Neither the age of the manufacturing equipment and the hours of downtime of the equipment
• Hours of downtime of the equipment
• Both the age of the manufacturing equipment and the hours of downtime of the equipment

Q2. A scatter plot in which the plotted points are clustered approximately into a straight line from the top left to the bottom right of the graph is displaying which of the following:

• Bimodal correlation
• Negative correlation
• Positive correlation
• No correlation

Q3. If the pass rate of exams increases with study time, then the correlation coefficient for the study time versus exams would be:

• Between 0 and +1
• Equal to 1
• Between 0 and -1
• Greater than 1

Q4. Which of the following statements are true about correlation?

• The lower the correlation coefficient is, the weaker the correlation is
• The correlation coefficient can range from -1 to +1
• r can only range from 0 to 1
• A negative correlation coefficient means that there is not a strong relationship between the variables

Q5. In the equation for basic linear regression, what does the term “b” represent?

• The slope of the line
• The x intercept
• The y intercept
• The error

Q6. The least squares method is used for what?

• Determining the regression equation
• Simplifying algebraic equations
• Calculating the correlation coefficient
• The central limit theorem

Q7. You collect sample data to calculate the relationship between age of the manufacturing equipment at your facility and the hours of downtime of that equipment. Using data ranging from 0.5 years old to 20 years old for the equipment, you obtain the regression equation for annual hours of downtime of y=10+0.5x with a high correlation coefficient. How many hours of downtime would you predict for equipment that is 8 years old? (Round to the nearest 10^th of a year)

• 8.0
• 14.0
• 4.0
• You cannot use this regression equation to answer the  

Q8. Where is regression analysis most often used by six sigma professionals?

• In the improve phase to estimate gains after the projected improvement
• In the control phase for the process behavior chart
• In the analyze phase for statistical sampling
• In the define phase for the is-is not analysis

Six Sigma Tools for Improve and Control Week 2 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Hypothesis Testing Practice Quiz

Q1. If you want to test the claim that the mean time between failures of a particular piece of equipment has increased from 207.1 operating hours, what would your alternative hypothesis be?

Option 3

Q2. If you want to test the claim that the mean time between failures of a particular piece of equipment has increased from 207.1 operating hours, what would your null hypothesis be?

Option 1

Q3. If the null hypothesis is true and one fails to reject it,

• A type II error has been made
• No error has been made
• A type I error has been made
• Another test should be done

Q4. Suppose you want to test the claim that the mean time between failures of a particular piece of equipment has increased from 207.1 operating hours. Your sample data leads you to reject H0. The actual mean is 207.0. What type of error, if any, have you made?

• No error has been made
• A type I error has been made
• A type II error has been made
• Another test should be done

Q5. If a small difference truly does exist between two processes, but the sample taken is too small to determine that difference, what type of error would likely result?

• Type I
• Type II
• Both Type I and Type II
• No error

Q6. What is the opposite of the alpha risk?

• None of the above
• Beta risk
• Producer’s risk
• Type I error

Q7. Why would one choose to set

as opposed to 0.10?

• One is more willing to risk a Type II error
• One is not willing to risk either type of error
• will result in rejecting H0 more often
• One is more willing to risk a Type I error

Q8. If your hypothesis test is:

what type of test will you need to do?

• Two-tailed
• Right-tailed
• Left-tailed
• Binomial

Q9. The output from Minitab software is a p-value of 0.12. If the desired level of significance is 0.05 then the conclusion is:

• Reject the null hypothesis because there is a statistical difference.
• Reject the null hypothesis because there is no statistical difference.
• Fail to reject the null hypothesis because there is no statistical difference.
• Fail to reject the null hypothesis because there is a statistical difference.

Q10. While performing a hypothesis test, you calculate a p-value of 0.005. If the desired level of significance is 0.01 then the conclusion is:

• Fail to reject the null hypothesis because there is no statistical difference.
• Reject the null hypothesis because there is a statistical difference.
• Fail to reject the null hypothesis because there is a statistical difference.
• Reject the null hypothesis because there is no statistical difference.

Quiz 2: Hypothesis Testing Graded Quiz

Q1. If you want to test the claim that the mean length of widgets has changed from 4.3 meters, what would your null hypothesis be?

Option 4

Q2. A null hypothesis states that a process has not changed over time. If a type II error is made,

• One has failed to reject the null hypothesis when it was false
• One has rejected the null hypothesis when it was true
• One has rejected the null hypothesis when it was false
• One has failed to reject the null hypothesis when it was true

Q3. Suppose you want to test the claim that the mean length of process time has decreased from 12.3 minutes. Your sample data leads you to fail to reject H0. The actual mean length is 12.0 minutes. What type of error, if any, have you made?

• Another test should be done
• A type II error has been made
• A type I error has been made
• No error has been made

Q4. If your hypothesis test is:

what type of test will you need to do?

• Two-tailed
• Right-tailed
• Binomial
• Left-tailed

Q5. While performing a hypothesis test, you calculate a p-value of 0.05. If the desired level of significance is 0.01 then the conclusion is:

• Fail to reject the null hypothesis because there is no statistical difference.
• Reject the null hypothesis because there is a statistical difference.
• Reject the null hypothesis because there is no statistical difference.
• Fail to reject the null hypothesis because there is a statistical difference.

Six Sigma Tools for Improve and Control Week 3 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Improvement Techniques Practice Quiz

Q1. Optimizing individual or departmental performance will always hurt the performance of the organization

• True
• False

Q2. Kaizen is focused on dramatic rapid improvements

• True
• False

Q3. In Kaizen, employees are empowered to change anything in the process that they think is appropriate.

• True
• False

Q4. Kaizen blitz, or kaizen events are often spontaneous.

• True
• False

Q5. Team members are trained at the beginning of a Kaizen Blitz or Kaizen event.

• True
• False

Q6. In which step of the PDCA model would you evaluate the results, and check the effects of your improvement?

• Act
• Plan
• Do
• Check

Q7. In which step of the PDCA model would performance predictions be made?

• Do
• Check
• Plan
• Act

Q8. In which step of the PDCA model would you document and standardize successful parts of your solution?

• Do
• Check
• Plan
• Act

Q9. In which step would you actually implement your improvements?

• Plan
• Do
• Check
• Act

Q10. The PDCA model and the DMAIC model of six sigma are incompatible.

• True
• False

Quiz 2: Improvement Techniques Graded Quiz

Q1. Maximizing the performance of one machine or one department could have a negative effect on another machine or department, and subsequently on the organization as a whole. This is an example of:

• Over-optimization
• Alternate optimization
• Productivity optimization
• Sub-optimization

Q2. Employee empowerment is a key element of Kaizen.

• True
• False

Q3. Improvements through both Kaizen and Kaizen Blitz must be carefully managed.

• True
• False

Q4. Deming’s version of the model is Plan, Do, Study, Act. He changed check to study because he wanted it to be a plan for management, and he wanted them to use this step to compare results with predictions.

• True
• False

Q5. The PDCA model is complex, and you should have an expert to lead the team.

• True
• False

Q6. Which of these statements best describes net present value?

• A way to compare present costs with future costs.
• A way to determine the value of future investments.
• The sum of present values of incoming and outgoing cash flows over a period of time.
• A way to determine the value of future benefits.

Q7. Payback Period is usually

• It depends.
• 24 months.
• 18 months.
• 12 months.

Q8. Internal rate of return usually reflects the anticipated inflation rate.

• True
• False

Q9. When an organization first starts to address quality issues, external failures are likely to go down, while both appraisal costs and internal failures will go up.

• True
• False

Q10. Generally the cost of quality will be lowest with a strong focus on:

• Appraisal
• External Failures
• Prevention
• Internal failures

Six Sigma Tools for Improve and Control Week 4 Quiz Answers

Quiz 1: Control Tools and Documentation Practice

Q1. From an ISO perspective, how can we show that our QMS is functioning?

• Producing records
• Telling the auditor
• Writing a procedure
• Training employees

Q2. What is the difference between a job aid and an SOP?

• There is no difference
• An SOP is longer than a job aid
• Job Aids outline step by step instructions
• SOP’s are procedures, job aids are not

Q3. We use control charts to establish process capability.

• True
• False

Q4. A means of maintaining gains on a control plan include all except:

• Training
• Internal Auditing
• Process mapping
• Procedures

Q5. A gage control plan does not include:

• Calibration
• Purchasing
• Proper Handing
• Maintenance

Q6. A document is only a paper copy of a quality manual, procedure, work instruction, or record.

• True
• False

Q7. Documents are superior to verbal instructions for all the reasons below except:

• Verbal instructions are quickly forgotten
• Verbal instructions are more convenient than documents
• Verbal instructions are not heard
• Verbal instructions flow down to the operator from the customer

Q8. A component of document management is distribution.

• True
• False

Q9. A dynamic control plan consists of all the following except:

• Control plans
• SOP’s
• The quality manual
• FMEA’s

Q10. Common cause variations can only be solved by management.

• True
• False

Quiz 2: Control Tools and Documentation Graded Quiz

Q1. An example of special cause variation would not include:

• No documentation
• No preventive maintenance
• No training
• Lack of supervision skills

Q2. Control charts for averages behave like what distribution?

• Weibull
• Euler Phi
• Poisson
• Normal

Q3. In order to have a rational sample, we seek to have all of the following except:

• Desired differences within samples minimized
• Desired differences between samples maximized
• Desired differences between samples minimized
• Sub group size

Q4. If we want to detect a large shift, we need a smaller sample size

• False
• True

Q5. Control is the process employed to meet customer expectations

• True
• False

Q6. A pitfall of document control would not include:

• High Distribution
• Old Revisions in use
• Use of electronic media
• Lack of stakeholder involvement

Q7. One of focus areas in the P-D-C-A process is:

• How do we do it
• How do we control it
• How do we plan it
• What are our goals

Q8. Control charting is only for monitoring

• True
• False

Q9. Document management includes all processes except:

• Creation
• Deletion
• Distribution
• All of the above

Q10. After you assign causes and eliminate problems, you need to remove the _____________.

• points on the centerline
• upper and lower limits
• centerline
• out of control points

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