Welcome to your ultimate guide for Introduction to Cyber Attacks quiz answers! Whether you’re working through practice quizzes to enhance your understanding or preparing for graded quizzes to test your knowledge, this guide is here to help.
Covering all course modules, this resource will teach you about the various types of cyber attacks, how they work, their potential impact on individuals and organizations, and how to safeguard against them using best cybersecurity practices.
Introduction to Cyber Attacks Quiz Answers – Practice & Graded Quizzes for All Modules
Table of Contents
Introduction to Cyber Attacks Module 01 Quiz Answers
Q1. A malicious worm program is characterized by the following fundamental attribute:
Correct Answer:
- Auto-propagation without human intervention
Explanation:
A worm is designed to propagate itself automatically, often without any human intervention, and spread across networks or systems.
Q2. Embedding a trap door into a login program results in which of the following:
Correct Answer:
- A Trojan horse
Explanation:
A trap door embedded in a login program allows unauthorized access to the system, making it a form of Trojan horse.
Q3. Learning the incredibly easy, but devastatingly effective techniques for hacking an old soda machine is instructive, because it exemplifies which of the following properties of cyber security?
Correct Answer:
- Simple attacks might prompt complex redesigns
Explanation:
Even simple attacks can expose vulnerabilities that require complex solutions or redesigns of systems to prevent further exploitation.
Q4. Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer:
- Dirty compilers never produce clean code.
Explanation:
A “dirty” compiler, which is poorly written or improperly used, produces unreliable or insecure code, whereas “clean” code is well-structured and optimized.
Q5. Cyber adversary motivation does not include which of the following:
Correct Answer:
- None of the above
Explanation:
All listed motivations (curiosity, money, politics, and fame) can be driving factors for cyber adversaries.
Q6. Remote exploitation of an unaltered vehicle by hackers is enabled by which of the following design decisions:
Correct Answer:
- All of the above
Explanation:
Carelessness regarding the architecture, not enforcing separation between systems, and using outdated languages can all enable vulnerabilities that allow remote exploitation.
Q7. Which of the following is a reasonable conclusion that one might draw by studying Unix kernel attacks such as the old IFS exploit?
Correct Answer:
- Seeing open source code might help one design an attack.
Explanation:
Open source code can expose vulnerabilities and provide insight into potential attack vectors, such as with Unix kernel attacks.
Q8. The root cause of some discovered cyber security vulnerability might reasonably be which of the following:
Correct Answer:
- All of the above
Explanation:
Lack of investment, overly technical designs, insufficient consideration of regulatory concerns, or ignoring hidden vulnerabilities can all contribute to security weaknesses.
Q9. Buffer overflow attacks might best be avoided by which of the following preventive approaches:
Correct Answer:
- Using languages with strong type enforcement
Explanation:
Strong type enforcement in programming languages can help prevent buffer overflow by ensuring that variables cannot exceed the expected memory bounds.
Q10. The integrity threat can be exemplified by which of the following scenarios:
Correct Answer:
- Customer records were hidden, but one might have been slightly garbled
Explanation:
An integrity threat refers to the alteration of data, such as garbled customer records, which undermines the accuracy or reliability of the information.
Introduction to Cyber Attacks Module 02 Quiz Answers
Q1. Hackers might produce an availability threat in which of the following scenarios?
Correct Answer:
- A hacker causes a tiny delay in some system
Explanation:
An availability threat refers to attacks that disrupt the availability of a service or system, even if it’s a small delay, it can cause significant impact.
Q2. The difference between a hurricane knocking out a data center and a malicious hacker knocking out the same data center is the following:
Correct Answer:
- One involves a single vulnerability and the other involves an attack.
Explanation:
A hurricane is a natural event, while a hacker’s actions are deliberate and involve an attack leveraging vulnerabilities.
Q3. Which of the following statements is false?
Correct Answer:
- None of the above are false.
Explanation:
All the given statements are true. It is difficult to build a complete list of vulnerabilities and attacks, and you can identify a finite list of threat types.
Q4. Program testing is an ineffective means for detecting the absence of Trojan horses for which of the following reasons?
Correct Answer:
- Testers cannot draw conclusions about every possible use case
Explanation:
Program testing often cannot identify every possible case where a Trojan horse could be hidden, especially if it’s a sophisticated one.
Q5. Pre-attack indicators are like post-attack indicators in which of the following ways:
Correct Answer:
- Both are more effective in the presence of external threat intelligence
Explanation:
External threat intelligence can improve the effectiveness of both pre-attack and post-attack indicators.
Q6. DMARC is a standard that enforces which of the following IT infrastructure bindings:
Correct Answer:
- Connects email source with email server IP address
Explanation:
DMARC helps verify the authenticity of the sender’s email source and connects it to a legitimate IP address.
Q7. Fraud fits poorly into the CIA model for which of the following reasons:
Correct Answer:
- Fraud is a unique scenario that does not easily fit into existing categories
Explanation:
Fraud involves deceptive actions that don’t always neatly fit into the traditional CIA (Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability) security model.
Q8. Which of the following is an advantage of more reactive cyber defense (versus proactive defense)?
Correct Answer:
- Less false positives
Explanation:
Reactive defense generally focuses on responding to attacks when they occur, which can result in fewer false positives compared to proactive methods that may overestimate threats.
Q9. Brute force attacks are good for which of the following scenarios?
Correct Answer:
- Large attack domain size that can be enumerated and traversed with automation
Explanation:
Brute force attacks are effective when there is a large set of potential inputs (like passwords) that can be automatically tested.
Q10. Which of the following statements is not true?
Correct Answer:
- Chosen-plaintext is more secure than codebook
Explanation:
Chosen-plaintext attacks are generally easier for attackers to exploit compared to codebook methods, where the attacker doesn’t control the plaintext.
Introduction to Cyber Attacks Module 03 Quiz Answers
Q1. If the probability of some attack increases while the consequences of that same attack decrease, a security engineer can quantitatively calculate the effects on overall risk as follows:
Correct Answer:
- By calculating risk using a common scale, simple arithmetic can be used.
Explanation:
To calculate overall risk, you can adjust the probability and consequences by a common scale and apply basic arithmetic to determine the resulting risk.
Q2. Avi Rubin’s talk “All Your Devices Can be Hacked” teaches us which of the following lessons:
Correct Answer:
- You shouldn’t expect device security to be perfect
Explanation:
Avi Rubin’s talk emphasizes the vulnerabilities in devices and the challenges of achieving perfect security, highlighting the need for ongoing vigilance.
Q3. The Blaster and Nachi worms demonstrated which of the following?
Correct Answer:
- Hints about large-scale attacks might come from a network
Explanation:
The Blaster and Nachi worms highlighted the importance of network monitoring for detecting potential large-scale attacks.
Q4. Botnet-originated DDOS attacks that produce 100 Gbps of aggregate flood traffic to a target must minimally include which of the following architectural and capacity configurations?
Correct Answer:
- A million bots each delivering ten Kbps of attack traffic.
Explanation:
A large-scale DDoS attack requires many bots, each contributing a small amount of traffic to reach the total attack traffic volume.
Q5. A typical botnet-originated DDOS attack will tend to use which of the following properties for success:
Correct Answer:
- Amplification
Explanation:
Botnet attacks often rely on amplification techniques to increase the volume of attack traffic significantly.
Q6. Threat trees enforce completeness by which of the following techniques:
Correct Answer:
- Never skipping a level
Explanation:
Threat trees ensure all potential threats and paths are considered, and skipping levels can leave gaps in threat coverage.
Q7. Which of the following security and cost decision represents the worst choice?
Correct Answer:
- Lower security, lower cost
Explanation:
Opting for lower security, even with reduced costs, can expose the organization to significant risk, making this a poor choice.
Q8. Which of the following statements is false?
Correct Answer:
- A million bots at any outbound capacity is simply not feasible
Explanation:
A million bots can indeed generate significant attack traffic, and the statement is false as this scenario is feasible.
Q9. Determining the assets of an enterprise requires involvement of which of the following organizations:
Correct Answer:
- IT and security taking the lead with BU support
Explanation:
IT and security, with support from business units (BU), should lead the identification of enterprise assets for proper protection.
Q10. If something caused risk to increase, then we can conclude which of the following?
Correct Answer:
- Probability of attack increased
Explanation:
If risk increases, it could be due to an increase in the probability of an attack or the severity of its consequences, but typically an increase in probability is the immediate cause.
Introduction to Cyber Attacks Module 04 Quiz Answers
Q1. Carefully mapping assets to threats is an effective technique under which of the following situations?
Correct Answer:
- You have no understanding of your assets but would like to
Explanation:
Mapping assets to threats helps in understanding the vulnerabilities and risks associated with the assets, especially when you have little or no understanding of them.
Q2. Man-in-the-middle attacks on wireless UMTS services are possible because of which infrastructure feature?
Correct Answer:
- Fallback from 3G to 2G services
Explanation:
Man-in-the-middle attacks can occur when there is a fallback to less secure 2G networks, which lack proper encryption compared to 3G or 4G services.
Q3. Which of the following statements regarding enterprise assets is true?
Correct Answer:
- Identifiable assets include tangible ones
Explanation:
Enterprise assets can be both tangible and intangible, and both types can be identified and protected.
Q4. Estimating risk for cells in a threat-asset matrix requires which of the following approaches?
Correct Answer:
- All of the above
Explanation:
Estimating risk requires a holistic view, knowledge of the environment, and recognition that cost issues must be considered to assess the full scope of the threat.
Q5. Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer:
- Assets sometimes have vulnerabilities
Explanation:
Not all assets have vulnerabilities, but some assets may possess vulnerabilities that attackers can exploit.
Q6. Which would most likely be the highest security risk for a Mobility Service Provider?
Correct Answer:
- Availability of LTE service
Explanation:
The availability of LTE service is a key concern for Mobility Service Providers, as any disruption in service can have significant impacts on their operations.
Q7. Which of the following is not an organizational asset?
Correct Answer:
- None of the Above
Explanation:
All of the options listed—name, reputation, servers, and people—are considered organizational assets.
Q8. As risk goes up, we can conclude which of the following?
Correct Answer:
- Consequence and probability of attack goes up
Explanation:
As the overall risk increases, both the probability of an attack and the potential consequences of such an attack tend to rise.
Q9. Worms are best avoided by which of the following techniques?
Correct Answer:
- Improved patching
Explanation:
Worms typically exploit vulnerabilities in software. Regular patching helps to address these vulnerabilities and prevent worms from spreading.
Q10. Since there is an infinity of possible vulnerabilities, but a finite number of threat types, the following can be stated:
Correct Answer:
- The cross product of vulnerabilities and threats must be mapped to assets.
Explanation:
Vulnerabilities and threats should be mapped to assets to effectively manage risks and protect the organization’s resources.
Final Quiz – What level of security risk do you estimate for the following threat-asset matrix entries for the ACME Software Company Quiz Answers
Q1. C, PD – Confidentiality of Product Development. This includes disclosing information, tools, systems, and data related to product development such as source code, documentation, and tool information to unauthorized individuals or groups.
Correct Answer:
- High
Explanation:
The confidentiality of product development is critical as unauthorized disclosure can expose intellectual property and sensitive information, leading to competitive disadvantages.
Q2. I, PD – Integrity of Product Development. This includes malicious changes to any information, tools, systems, and data related to product development such as source code, documentation, and tool information by unauthorized individuals or groups.
Correct Answer:
- High
Explanation:
Malicious changes to product development data or tools can severely affect the quality and security of the product, leading to potential legal, financial, and reputation damage.
Q3. D, PD– Denial of Service to Product Development. This includes malicious blocking of access to any information, tools, systems, and data related to product development such as source code, documentation, and tool information by unauthorized individuals or groups.
Correct Answer:
- High
Explanation:
A denial of service attack preventing access to product development systems can halt or delay the entire development process, which can have significant consequences for the business.
Q4. C, SS – Confidentiality of Software Sales. This includes disclosing information, tools, systems, and data related to software sales such as packaged software products, hosting configurations, and customer information to unauthorized individuals or groups.
Correct Answer:
- Medium
Explanation:
While confidentiality in software sales is important, the impact of disclosure is generally lower than in product development, but still a risk in terms of competitive advantage and customer privacy.
Q5. I, SS – Integrity of Software Sales. This includes malicious changes to information, tools, systems, and data related to software sales such as packaged software products, hosting configurations, and customer information by unauthorized individuals or groups.
Correct Answer:
- High
Explanation:
Malicious changes to software sales data can damage customer trust, disrupt sales, and result in significant legal or financial penalties.
Q6. D, SS – Denial of Service to Software Sales. This includes malicious blocking of access to information, tools, systems, and data related to software sales such as packaged software products, hosting configurations, and customer information by unauthorized individuals or groups.
Correct Answer:
- Medium
Explanation:
While denial of service can affect the software sales operation, it is generally less impactful than in product development, though it can still harm sales operations and customer relations.
Q7. C, BO – Confidentiality of Business Operations. This includes disclosing information, tools, systems, and data related to business operations such as employee data, payroll, financials, or business strategy to unauthorized individuals or groups.
Correct Answer:
- High
Explanation:
Disclosure of sensitive business operations data, such as payroll or strategy, can significantly impact company reputation, lead to financial loss, and expose the company to legal risks.
Q8. I, BO – Integrity of Business Operations. This includes malicious changes to information, tools, systems, and data related to business operations such as employee data, payroll, financials, or business strategy by unauthorized individuals or groups.
Correct Answer:
- High
Explanation:
Malicious alterations to business operation data, such as payroll or financial information, can lead to financial discrepancies, legal actions, and loss of trust among stakeholders.
Q9. D, BO – Denial of Service to Business Operations. This includes malicious blocking of access to information, tools, systems, and data related to business operations such as employee data, payroll, financials, or business strategy by unauthorized individuals or groups.
Correct Answer:
- High
Explanation:
Denial of service in business operations, such as blocking access to payroll or financial data, can disrupt critical business functions, leading to operational and financial harm.
Conclusion
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Sources: Real-Time Cyber Threat Detection and Mitigation
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