AWS Cloud Practitioner Essentials Quiz Answers

Welcome to your comprehensive guide for AWS Cloud Practitioner Essentials quiz answers! Whether you’re working through practice quizzes to solidify your understanding or preparing for graded quizzes to test your knowledge, this guide has you covered.

Covering all course modules, this resource will help you master core AWS Cloud concepts, including cloud computing, AWS services, security, pricing, and support.

AWS Cloud Practitioner Essentials Quiz Answers – Practice & Graded Quizzes for All Modules

AWS Cloud Practitioner Essentials Module 01 Quiz Answers

Q1. What is cloud computing?

Correct Answer: On-demand delivery of IT resources and applications through the internet with pay-as-you-go pricing

Explanation: Cloud computing refers to the delivery of computing services (like servers, storage, databases, networking, software) over the internet on a pay-as-you-go basis, which means you pay only for the resources you use.


Q2. What is another name for on-premises deployment?

Correct Answer: Private cloud deployment

Explanation: On-premises deployment refers to the traditional model where the organization’s IT infrastructure is hosted within its own facilities, which is commonly known as a private cloud deployment when it is set up to mimic the benefits of the cloud while remaining within the organization’s control.


Q3. How does the scale of cloud computing help you to save costs?

Correct Answer: The aggregated cloud usage from a large number of customers results in lower pay-as-you-go prices.

Explanation: The scale of cloud computing means that cloud providers aggregate usage across many customers, which results in economies of scale. This lowers the overall costs for individual customers who only pay for the resources they use.

AWS Cloud Practitioner Essentials Module 02 Quiz Answers

Question 1: You want to use an Amazon EC2 instance for a batch processing workload. What would be the best Amazon EC2 instance type to use?

Correct Answer: Compute optimized

Explanation: For batch processing workloads, you typically need instances that offer a high level of compute power. Compute optimized EC2 instances are ideal for tasks that require significant processing capacity, like batch processing.


Question 2: What are the contract length options for Amazon EC2 Reserved Instances? (Select TWO.)

Correct Answer:

  • 1 year
  • 3 years
    Explanation: Amazon EC2 Reserved Instances offer contract lengths of either 1 year or 3 years, allowing you to reserve capacity and save money compared to on-demand pricing.

Question 3: You have a workload that will run for a total of 6 months and can withstand interruptions. What would be the most cost-efficient Amazon EC2 purchasing option?

Correct Answer: Spot Instance

Explanation: Spot Instances are the most cost-efficient option for workloads that are flexible and can tolerate interruptions, as they allow you to bid for unused EC2 capacity at a lower price.


Question 4: Which process is an example of Elastic Load Balancing?

Correct Answer: Automatically adjusting the number of Amazon EC2 instances to meet demand

Explanation: Elastic Load Balancing automatically distributes incoming application traffic across multiple Amazon EC2 instances, ensuring that no single instance carries too much load and that the number of instances adjusts according to demand.


Question 5: You want to deploy and manage containerized applications. Which service should you use?

Correct Answer: Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)

Explanation: Amazon EKS is a managed service that allows you to run and scale containerized applications using Kubernetes. It’s specifically designed for managing containerized workloads.

AWS Cloud Practitioner Essentials Module 03 Quiz Answers

Question 1: Which statement is TRUE for the AWS global infrastructure?

Correct Answer: A Region consists of three or more Availability Zones.

Explanation: An AWS Region is made up of multiple Availability Zones (typically at least three), which are isolated locations within the region to improve availability and fault tolerance.


Question 2: Which factors should be considered when selecting a Region? (Select TWO.)

Correct Answer:

  • Compliance with data governance and legal requirements
  • Proximity to your customers
    Explanation: When selecting a Region, you need to consider data governance and legal requirements to ensure compliance, as well as the proximity to your customers to minimize latency and improve performance.

Question 3: Which statement best describes Amazon CloudFront?

Correct Answer: A global content delivery service

Explanation: Amazon CloudFront is a content delivery network (CDN) that caches copies of your content in various locations around the world (edge locations) to deliver content quickly to users based on their geographic location.


Question 4: Which site does Amazon CloudFront use to cache copies of content for faster delivery to users at any location?

Correct Answer: Edge location

Explanation: Amazon CloudFront uses edge locations to cache copies of your content closer to users, reducing latency and speeding up delivery.


Question 5: Which action can you perform with AWS Outposts?

Correct Answer: Extend AWS infrastructure and services to different locations including your on-premises data center.

Explanation: AWS Outposts allows you to extend AWS infrastructure and services to on-premises locations, providing a hybrid cloud environment for applications that need to run both in AWS and in your data center.

AWS Cloud Practitioner Essentials Module 04 Quiz Answers

Question 1: Your company has an application that uses Amazon EC2 instances to run the customer-facing website and Amazon RDS database instances to store customers’ personal information. How should the developer configure the VPC according to best practices?

Correct Answer: Place the Amazon EC2 instances in a public subnet and the Amazon RDS database instances in a private subnet.

Explanation: Best practices recommend placing the EC2 instances (web servers) in a public subnet, where they can communicate with the internet, and placing the RDS database instances in a private subnet for security, preventing direct internet access.


Question 2: Which component can be used to establish a private dedicated connection between your company’s data center and AWS?

Correct Answer: AWS Direct Connect

Explanation: AWS Direct Connect establishes a dedicated network connection between your data center and AWS, providing higher bandwidth and lower latency compared to the internet.


Question 3: Which statement best describes security groups?

Correct Answer: They are stateful and deny all inbound traffic by default.

Explanation: Security groups are stateful, meaning they track the state of connections. By default, they deny all inbound traffic and only allow traffic that is explicitly permitted by rules.


Question 4: Which component is used to connect a VPC to the internet?

Correct Answer: Internet gateway

Explanation: An internet gateway is used to connect a VPC to the internet, enabling communication between the VPC resources and the outside world.


Question 5: Which service is used to manage the DNS records for domain names?

Correct Answer: Amazon Route 53

Explanation: Amazon Route 53 is a scalable DNS web service that manages domain name system (DNS) records, routing traffic to the appropriate resources.

AWS Cloud Practitioner Essentials Module 05 Quiz Answers

Question 1: Which Amazon S3 storage classes are optimized for archival data? (Select TWO.)

Correct Answer:

  • Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval
  • Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive
    Explanation:
  • Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval is designed for archival data with retrieval times ranging from minutes to hours.
  • Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive offers the lowest cost storage for archival data, with retrieval times of 12 hours or more.

Question 2: Which statement or statements are TRUE about Amazon EBS volumes and Amazon EFS file systems?

Correct Answer:

  • EBS volumes store data within a single Availability Zone. Amazon EFS file systems store data across multiple Availability Zones.
    Explanation:
  • Amazon EBS (Elastic Block Store) stores data in a single Availability Zone, and its volumes can be attached to EC2 instances in that zone.
  • Amazon EFS (Elastic File System) automatically replicates data across multiple Availability Zones to provide high availability and durability.

Question 3: You want to store data in an object storage service. Which AWS service is best for this type of storage?

Correct Answer: Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)

Explanation: Amazon S3 is an object storage service, which is best for storing large amounts of unstructured data such as backups, images, and other media files.


Question 4: Which statement best describes Amazon DynamoDB?

Correct Answer: A serverless key-value database service

Explanation: Amazon DynamoDB is a fully managed, serverless NoSQL key-value and document database service designed for high performance and scalability.


Question 5: Which service is used to query and analyze data across a data warehouse?

Correct Answer: Amazon Redshift

Explanation: Amazon Redshift is a fully managed data warehouse service that allows you to analyze large amounts of data quickly using SQL queries and other business intelligence tools.

AWS Cloud Practitioner Essentials Module 06 Quiz Answers

Question 1: Which statement best describes an IAM policy?

Correct Answer: A document that grants or denies permissions to AWS services and resources

Explanation: An IAM (Identity and Access Management) policy is a document written in JSON that specifies permissions for actions on AWS resources. It grants or denies access to various AWS services based on conditions defined in the policy.


Question 2: An employee requires temporary access to create several Amazon S3 buckets. Which option would be the best choice for this task?

Correct Answer: IAM role

Explanation: An IAM role allows you to grant temporary access to AWS services. In this case, assigning an IAM role would enable the employee to create Amazon S3 buckets without giving them permanent access to your account.


Question 3: Which statement best describes the principle of least privilege?

Correct Answer: Granting only the permissions that are needed to perform specific tasks

Explanation: The principle of least privilege is a security practice that ensures users are given the minimum permissions necessary to perform their jobs. This helps minimize security risks by reducing the potential for unauthorized actions.


Question 4: Which service helps protect your applications against distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks?

Correct Answer: AWS Shield

Explanation: AWS Shield is a managed DDoS protection service that safeguards applications running on AWS against volumetric and infrastructure-level attacks.


Question 5: Which task can AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) perform?

Correct Answer: Create cryptographic keys

Explanation: AWS Key Management Service (KMS) is used to create, store, and manage cryptographic keys for applications. It helps with encryption, but it does not manage MFA, update account passwords, or assign IAM permissions directly.

AWS Cloud Practitioner Essentials Module 07 Quiz Answers

Question 1: Which actions can you perform using Amazon CloudWatch? (Select TWO.)

Correct Answer:

  • Monitor your resources’ utilization and performance
  • Access metrics from a single dashboard

Explanation:

Amazon CloudWatch is primarily used to monitor and collect metrics on AWS resources, enabling you to track resource utilization, performance, and operational health.

It also provides a unified view of metrics, logs, and alarms across AWS services, allowing you to view all your resource metrics from a single dashboard.


Question 2: Which service enables you to review the security of your Amazon S3 buckets by checking for open access permissions?

Correct Answer: AWS Trusted Advisor

Explanation: AWS Trusted Advisor provides recommendations for AWS account security, including checks on S3 bucket permissions to ensure they are not open to unauthorized access.


Question 3: Which categories are included in the AWS Trusted Advisor dashboard? (Select TWO.)

Correct Answer:

  • Reliability
  • Performance
    Explanation:
    The AWS Trusted Advisor dashboard includes several categories like Reliability (for system availability) and Performance (for optimizing your AWS resources). These categories help ensure your AWS environment follows best practices.

AWS Cloud Practitioner Essentials Module 08 Quiz Answers

Question 1: Which action can you perform with consolidated billing?

Correct Answer: Combine usage across accounts to receive volume pricing discounts.

Explanation: Consolidated billing allows you to combine usage from multiple AWS accounts under one payment plan, enabling you to receive volume discounts based on aggregated usage.


Question 2: Which pricing tool is used to visualize, understand, and manage your AWS costs and usage over time?

Correct Answer: AWS Cost Explorer

Explanation: AWS Cost Explorer is the tool used to visualize and analyze your AWS costs and usage over time, helping you understand your spending patterns.


Question 3: Which pricing tool enables you to receive alerts when your service usage exceeds a threshold that you have defined?

Correct Answer: AWS Budgets

Explanation: AWS Budgets allows you to set custom cost and usage thresholds and provides alerts when your usage exceeds the defined limits, helping you stay within budget.


Question 4: Your company wants to receive support from an AWS Technical Account Manager (TAM). Which support plan should you choose?

Correct Answer: Enterprise

Explanation: The Enterprise support plan includes access to an AWS Technical Account Manager (TAM), who provides personalized guidance, support, and assistance with AWS environments.


Question 5: Which service or resource is used to find third-party software that runs on AWS?

Correct Answer: AWS Marketplace

Explanation: AWS Marketplace is an online store where you can find third-party software and services that run on AWS, including applications, tools, and solutions for various use cases.

AWS Cloud Practitioner Essentials Module 09 Quiz Answers

Question 1: Which Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework helps you structure the selection and implementation of permissions?

Correct Answer: Security Perspective

Explanation: The Security Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework focuses on structuring the selection and implementation of security measures, including access control and permissions.


Question 2: Which strategies are included in the six strategies for application migration? (Select TWO.)

Correct Answer:

  • Retaining
  • Rehosting
    Explanation:
    The six strategies for application migration include Retaining (keeping the application on its current infrastructure) and Rehosting (moving applications “as-is” to the cloud, often called “lift and shift”). These are part of the migration planning process.

Question 3: What is the storage capacity of AWS Snowmobile?

Correct Answer: 80 PB

Explanation: AWS Snowmobile is a physical data transfer solution that can move large amounts of data to AWS. It has a storage capacity of 80 petabytes (PB).


Question 4: Which statement best describes Amazon Lex?

Correct Answer: A service that enables you to build conversational interfaces using voice and text

Explanation: Amazon Lex is a service that allows you to build conversational interfaces for applications, enabling natural language processing (NLP) for voice and text interactions.

AWS Cloud Practitioner Essentials Module 10 Quiz Answers

Question 1: Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework includes the ability to run workloads effectively and gain insights into their operations?

Correct Answer: Operational Excellence

Explanation: The Operational Excellence pillar focuses on operations in the cloud, ensuring workloads are well-managed and running efficiently, while also gaining insights for continuous improvement. It emphasizes monitoring, logging, and automation for improved operational effectiveness.


Question 2: What are the benefits of cloud computing? (Select TWO.)

Correct Answer:

  • Increase speed and agility.
  • Stop spending money running and maintaining data centers.
    Explanation:
  • Speed and agility: Cloud computing allows for faster deployment of resources, enabling businesses to innovate and adapt more quickly.
  • No need to maintain data centers: Cloud computing eliminates the need to invest in and maintain physical infrastructure, reducing overhead costs associated with data centers.

Final Assessment Quiz Answers

Question 1: An application developer wants to store data in a key-value database. Which service should they use?

Correct Answer: Amazon DynamoDB

Explanation: Amazon DynamoDB is a fully managed key-value and document database service that provides high performance and scalability, making it ideal for applications that require key-value data storage.


Question 2: Which AWS Trusted Advisor category includes checks for high-utilization EC2 instances?

Correct Answer: Performance

Explanation: The Performance category in AWS Trusted Advisor includes checks for EC2 instances that are overutilized or underutilized, helping optimize resource usage for better performance.


Question 3: Which Amazon EC2 pricing option reduces costs when a business makes an hourly spend commitment to an instance family and Region for a 1-year or 3-year term?

Correct Answer: Reserved Instances

Explanation: Reserved Instances offer significant savings compared to on-demand pricing when you commit to using specific EC2 instance families and regions for a 1-year or 3-year term.


Question 4: Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework focuses on using computing resources in ways that meet system requirements?

Correct Answer: Performance Efficiency

Explanation: The Performance Efficiency pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework emphasizes using computing resources efficiently to meet system requirements, including selecting the appropriate instance types and optimizing them over time.


Question 5: An application developer wants to send and receive messages between distributed application components. Which service should they use?

Correct Answer: Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)

Explanation: Amazon SQS is a fully managed message queuing service that allows developers to send and receive messages between distributed application components, decoupling the components for more efficient processing.


Question 6: Which actions can a person perform in Amazon Route 53? (Select TWO.)

Correct Answer:

  • Connect user requests to infrastructure in AWS and outside of AWS.
  • Manage DNS records for domain names.
    Explanation:
  • Amazon Route 53 is a scalable DNS and domain name registration service that routes user requests to appropriate infrastructure, both in AWS and externally.
  • It also allows you to manage DNS records for domain names, ensuring that traffic is directed to the right resources.

Question 7: Which statement is TRUE for AWS Lambda?

Correct Answer: Businesses pay only for compute time while their code is running.

Explanation: With AWS Lambda, businesses are charged based on the compute time consumed by their code (the actual execution time), without needing to provision servers or prepay for resources.


Question 8: Which tool provides automation actions for AWS services and applications through scripts?

Correct Answer: AWS Command Line Interface

Explanation: The AWS Command Line Interface (CLI) is a tool that allows you to automate tasks and interact with AWS services through scripts and command-line commands.


Question 9: Which action can a person perform in Amazon CloudFront?

Correct Answer: Deliver content to customers through a global network of edge locations.

Explanation: Amazon CloudFront is a content delivery network (CDN) service that caches and delivers content to users with low latency through a network of globally distributed edge locations.


Question 10: Which statement best describes Amazon GuardDuty?

Correct Answer: A service that provides intelligent threat detection for AWS infrastructure and resources

Explanation: Amazon GuardDuty is a threat detection service that continuously monitors for malicious or unauthorized behavior, providing intelligent insights to protect AWS infrastructure and resources.

Question 11: Which component or service establishes a dedicated private connection between an on-premises data center and virtual private cloud (VPC)?

Correct Answer: AWS Direct Connect

Explanation: AWS Direct Connect establishes a dedicated network connection between your on-premises data center and AWS, allowing for faster and more secure data transfer to and from a VPC.


Question 12: Which statement best describes AWS Marketplace?

Correct Answer: A digital catalog that includes thousands of software listings from independent software vendors

Explanation: AWS Marketplace is a digital catalog where customers can find, test, and buy software that runs on AWS, provided by independent software vendors.


Question 13: Which service is used to transfer up to 100 PB of data to AWS?

Correct Answer: AWS Snowmobile

Explanation: AWS Snowmobile is an extremely high-capacity data transfer service that can transfer up to 100 PB of data via a physical appliance.


Question 14: Which statement best describes an Availability Zone?

Correct Answer: A fully isolated portion of the AWS global infrastructure

Explanation: An Availability Zone is an isolated location within an AWS Region designed to be independent from other Availability Zones, ensuring high availability and fault tolerance for applications deployed in it.


Question 15: Which tasks are the responsibilities of AWS? (Select TWO.)

Correct Answer:

  • Maintaining virtualization infrastructure
  • Configuring security groups on Amazon EC2 instances
    Explanation:
  • AWS is responsible for maintaining the underlying infrastructure, including the virtualization layer.
  • Configuring security groups on EC2 instances is part of the network-level security management provided by AWS.

Question 16: A cloud architect wants Amazon S3 to monitor object access patterns. Which storage class should they use?

Correct Answer: Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering

Explanation: Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering automatically moves objects between two access tiers (frequent and infrequent) based on changing access patterns, helping optimize costs based on actual usage.


Question 17: Which service consolidates and manages multiple AWS accounts from a central location?

Correct Answer: AWS Organizations

Explanation: AWS Organizations allows you to centrally manage multiple AWS accounts, enabling governance, billing, and access management across accounts.


Question 18: Which Support plans include access to all AWS Trusted Advisor checks? (Select TWO.)

Correct Answer:

  • Enterprise
  • Business
    Explanation:
    The Enterprise and Business support plans provide full access to AWS Trusted Advisor checks, which provide recommendations for optimizing security, cost, performance, and more.

Question 19: Which statement best describes Elastic Load Balancing?

Correct Answer: A service that distributes incoming traffic across multiple targets, such as Amazon EC2 instances

Explanation: Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) automatically distributes incoming application traffic across multiple targets (such as EC2 instances), ensuring high availability and fault tolerance.


Question 20: Which Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework focuses on recovering IT workloads to meet the requirements of business stakeholders?

Correct Answer: Operations Perspective

Explanation: The Operations Perspective focuses on the ongoing operations and management of workloads, including recovery strategies to meet business requirements such as disaster recovery and business continuity.

Question 21: Which migration strategy involves changing how an application is architected and developed, typically by using cloud-native features?

Correct Answer: Refactoring

Explanation: Refactoring involves re-architecting or redesigning an application to fully utilize cloud-native features and services, such as elasticity and managed services, often resulting in a more efficient and scalable application.


Question 22: Which tool provides the capability to visualize, understand, and manage AWS costs and usage over time?

Correct Answer: AWS Cost Explorer

Explanation: AWS Cost Explorer is a tool that allows you to visualize, understand, and manage your AWS costs and usage over time, providing insights to help you optimize spending.


Question 23: Which service provides review details for user activities and API calls that have occurred within an AWS environment?

Correct Answer: AWS CloudTrail

Explanation: AWS CloudTrail records API calls and user activity across AWS services, providing detailed logs for auditing and monitoring actions within your AWS environment.


Question 24: Which virtual private cloud (VPC) component controls inbound and outbound traffic for Amazon EC2 instances?

Correct Answer: Security group

Explanation: Security groups act as virtual firewalls that control inbound and outbound traffic for Amazon EC2 instances, specifying which traffic is allowed to reach the instances.


Question 25: Which service builds the workflows that are required for human review of machine learning predictions?

Correct Answer: Amazon Augmented AI

Explanation: Amazon Augmented AI (A2I) allows you to create workflows for human review of machine learning predictions, which is useful when automated systems require human validation for certain tasks.


Question 26: Which service runs containerized applications on AWS?

Correct Answer: Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)

Explanation: Amazon EKS is a managed service that runs Kubernetes, allowing you to run containerized applications in a scalable and secure manner.


Question 27: In the S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage class, Amazon S3 moves objects between a frequent access tier and an infrequent access tier. Which storage classes are used for these tiers? (Select TWO.)

Correct Answer:

  • S3 Standard-IA
  • S3 One Zone-IA
    Explanation:
    S3 Standard-IA (Infrequent Access) and S3 One Zone-IA are storage classes used for infrequent access. These are the tiers Amazon S3 moves objects between in the Intelligent-Tiering storage class.

Question 28: Which service provides the capability to quickly deploy and scale applications on AWS?

Correct Answer: AWS Elastic Beanstalk

Explanation: AWS Elastic Beanstalk is a fully managed service that allows you to quickly deploy, manage, and scale applications and services on AWS, without worrying about the underlying infrastructure.


Question 29: A cloud engineer is running an Amazon EC2 instance and wants to store data in an attached resource. Their data is temporary and will not be kept long term. Which resource should they use?

Correct Answer: Instance store

Explanation: Instance store is temporary storage that is directly attached to Amazon EC2 instances. It is ideal for storing data that doesn’t need to persist after the instance is terminated.


Question 30: A cloud engineer wants to store data in a volume that is attached to an Amazon EC2 instance. Which service should they use?

Correct Answer: Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)

Explanation: Amazon EBS provides persistent block storage volumes that can be attached to EC2 instances. It is designed for long-term data storage and allows data to persist even after the EC2 instance is stopped or terminated.

Source: AWS Cloud Practitioner Essentials

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