Welcome to your ultimate guide for Introduction to Networking and Storage quiz answers! Whether you’re completing practice quizzes to solidify your understanding or preparing for graded quizzes to test your knowledge, this guide has you covered.
Covering all course modules, this resource will teach you essential networking concepts like network architecture, protocols, and how storage systems work to manage and protect data in modern computing environments.
Introduction to Networking and Storage Quiz Answers for All Modules
Table of Contents
Introduction to Networking and Storage Module 01 Quiz Answers
Module 01 Graded Quiz Answers
Q1. What network type is typically limited to a single building or site?
Correct Answer: Local Area Network (LAN)
Explanation: A Local Area Network (LAN) typically covers a small geographical area such as a single building or site, connecting devices within that area.
Q2. Why would you use a VPN?
Correct Answer: To encrypt data on a public network.
Explanation: A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is used to encrypt data, ensuring security and privacy when accessing the internet over a public network.
Q3. Which of the following are valid reasons to choose fiber optic connections for your wired network? (Select two)
Correct Answer:
- It can cover long distances.
- It can offer very fast speeds.
Explanation: Fiber optic connections are ideal for long-distance communication and provide very fast data transmission speeds compared to other wired connections.
Q4. Which of the following connection types is the slowest?
Correct Answer: ISDN
Explanation: ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) is typically slower than other connection types like DSL, Cellular, or Cable.
Q5. What kind of wireless networks use Wi-Fi and Wi-Fi 6?
Correct Answer: WLAN
Explanation: WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network) uses Wi-Fi and Wi-Fi 6 technologies to provide wireless internet access within a local area.
Q6. What kind of wireless networks use WIMAX?
Correct Answer: WMAN
Explanation: WMAN (Wireless Metropolitan Area Network) uses WIMAX (Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access) technology to provide broadband wireless access in larger areas like cities.
Q7. What would you use a shielded twisted pair cable for?
Correct Answer: To connect a computer to a switch or router.
Explanation: Shielded twisted pair (STP) cables are commonly used for network connections, such as connecting computers to switches or routers, providing better protection from electromagnetic interference.
Q8. What does a SATA cable do?
Correct Answer: A SATA cable connects a motherboard to a hard drive.
Explanation: A SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment) cable is used to connect storage devices like hard drives or SSDs to the motherboard for data transfer.
Q9. What are some advantages of LANs and WLANs? (Select two)
Correct Answer:
- LANs and WLANs are portable.
- LANs and WLANs have high data transmission rates.
Explanation: LANs and WLANs provide high-speed data transmission and allow for portability in accessing the network.
Q10. Which of the below options is a true statement about wired networks?
Correct Answer: Wired networks have less expensive hardware than wireless networks.
Explanation: Wired networks typically require less expensive hardware compared to wireless networks, which require additional equipment like access points and antennas.
Introduction to Networking and Storage Module 02 Quiz Answers
Module 02 Graded Quiz Answers
Q1. What kind of data transmission flow does a keyboard use?
Correct Answer: Simplex
Explanation: A keyboard uses simplex transmission, meaning data flows in only one direction (from the keyboard to the computer).
Q2. How is a dynamic IP address different from a static IP address?
Correct Answer: Dynamic IP addresses are automatically assigned.
Explanation: A dynamic IP address is assigned automatically by a DHCP server, whereas a static IP address is manually configured and remains fixed.
Q3. What is the difference between half-duplex mode and full-duplex mode?
Correct Answer: Half-duplex mode can only send or receive while full-duplex mode can do both.
Explanation: In half-duplex mode, communication occurs in one direction at a time, while in full-duplex mode, communication happens simultaneously in both directions.
Q4. What is a de-facto standard?
Correct Answer: A networking standard that results from marketplace domination or practice.
Explanation: A de-facto standard becomes widely adopted by industry due to its practical success, even if it is not officially recognized by a standards organization.
Q5. What always has an associated protocol and application?
Correct Answer: A port
Explanation: A port is associated with a specific protocol and application for network communication, allowing data to be directed to the correct program or service.
Q6. Which organization established the world wide web (www) standard?
Correct Answer: The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C)
Explanation: The W3C is responsible for developing the standards and guidelines for the World Wide Web, ensuring its long-term growth and interoperability.
Q7. What is the difference between a repeater and a wireless access point (WAP)?
Correct Answer: A repeater extends wireless signals, a WAP acts as a central wireless connection point.
Explanation: A repeater amplifies signals to extend the range, while a wireless access point (WAP) provides a central hub for devices to connect to a wireless network.
Q8. What does a WANET do?
Correct Answer: It uses long range-radio techniques to create long-distance network access.
Explanation: A WANET (Wireless Ad-hoc Network) uses long-range wireless communication techniques to establish a wide-area network without relying on wired infrastructure.
Q9. How many network protocols are there?
Correct Answer: Thousands
Explanation: There are thousands of different network protocols used for various purposes, such as TCP/IP, HTTP, FTP, and more.
Q10. What does the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol do?
Correct Answer: Remotely controls another device
Explanation: SSH (Secure Shell) allows secure remote access and control of a device over a network, providing encrypted communication.
Introduction to Networking and Storage Module 03 Quiz Answers
Module 03 Graded Quiz Answers
Q1. Why should you avoid trying network reset first when troubleshooting network issues?
Correct Answer: Network reset removes all custom settings and configurations.
Explanation: Network reset removes all personalized configurations, which could lead to loss of important settings, so it’s generally not the first step in troubleshooting.
Q2. How does Compatibility Mode affect a network? (Select two)
Correct Answer:
- Compatibility Mode can slow down an entire network.
- Compatibility Mode enables network connection for devices with older hardware.
Explanation: Compatibility Mode is designed to support older hardware or software, which can sometimes lead to slower network performance, and it enables devices with older configurations to connect.
Q3. What does SOHO network security depend on?
Correct Answer: Firewall
Explanation: SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) network security relies heavily on firewalls to protect the network from unauthorized access and threats.
Q4. Where do you go to configure Windows user accounts?
Correct Answer: In Control Panel
Explanation: To configure user accounts in Windows, you typically go to the Control Panel under “User Accounts.”
Q5. What is the strongest wireless encryption security mode?
Correct Answer: WPA2
Explanation: WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) is the strongest wireless encryption security mode available.
Q6. Which of the following is the name assigned to a wireless network?
Correct Answer: An SSID
Explanation: SSID (Service Set Identifier) is the name assigned to a wireless network.
Q7. What does synchronization do?
Correct Answer: It lets you transition from one device to another without losing any newly added information.
Explanation: Synchronization ensures that data stays consistent across devices, allowing users to move between devices without losing information.
Q8. What are IMEI and IMSI used for?
Correct Answer: They are identifiers that help troubleshoot mobile network devices and mobile user account issues.
Explanation: IMEI (International Mobile Equipment Identity) and IMSI (International Mobile Subscriber Identity) are used for tracking and troubleshooting mobile network devices and accounts.
Q9. Where should you place wireless access points?
Correct Answer: Up high, in the center of the space.
Explanation: Wireless access points should be placed high in the center of the area to provide optimal coverage and signal strength.
Q10. How do you launch the command prompt?
Correct Answer: Type “command” into the Windows search bar.
Explanation: You can launch the command prompt by typing “command” into the Windows search bar and selecting “Command Prompt.”
Introduction to Networking and Storage Module 04 Quiz Answers
Module 04 Graded Quiz Answers
Q1. Which RAID configuration provides fast and large-scale storage, but without any fault tolerance?
Correct Answer: RAID 0
Explanation: RAID 0 offers fast performance and large storage but lacks fault tolerance, as it does not duplicate data.
Q2. Which of the following statements is true in relation to Solid-state Hybrid Drives (SSHDs)? (Select two)
Correct Answers:
- SSHDs are faster than hard disk drives.
- SSHDs decide what to store in solid-state versus hard disk, based on user activity.
Explanation: SSHDs combine a traditional hard drive with a small amount of solid-state storage to improve speed by caching frequently accessed data.
Q3. What is Direct Attached Storage (DAS)?
Correct Answer: One or more storage drives inside an enclosure, directly attached to the computer accessing it.
Explanation: DAS is storage that is physically connected directly to a computer, such as an external hard drive or SSD.
Q4. What is a repository?
Correct Answer: A network location that allows users to store and collaborate on code.
Explanation: A repository is typically used for managing and sharing code, often as part of version control systems like Git.
Q5. Which of the following is an example of Storage as a Service?
Correct Answer: Box
Explanation: Box is a cloud-based storage service, providing storage and collaboration features over the internet.
Q6. What is a Storage Area Network (SAN)?
Correct Answer: Offsite network of storage-related hardware, software, and services.
Explanation: A SAN is a high-performance network used to deliver storage services over a network, often used in data centers.
Q7. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Storage Area Network (SAN)?
Correct Answer: Easily scalable
Explanation: SANs are scalable systems, designed to easily expand as storage needs increase.
Q8. Which of the following is a characteristic of Network Attached Storage (NAS)?
Correct Answer: Easy to manage
Explanation: NAS devices are networked storage units that are easier to manage and share files across a network compared to traditional file servers.
Q9. Which of the following is a protocol used by a Tape Gateway? (Select two)
Correct Answers:
- S3
- iSCSI
Explanation: Tape Gateways use protocols like S3 for object storage and iSCSI for block-level access to storage devices.
Q10. Which of the following best describes object storage?
Correct Answer: Divides data into self-contained units stored at the same level with no sub-directories.
Explanation: Object storage stores data as discrete units or “objects” rather than traditional file systems, which use hierarchical directories.
Introduction to Networking and Storage Module 05 Quiz Answers
Final Exam Quiz Answers
Q1. What kind of data transmission flow does a keyboard use?
Correct Answer: Simplex
Explanation: Simplex communication means data flows in only one direction, from the keyboard to the computer.
Q2. How is a dynamic IP address different from a static IP address?
Correct Answer: Dynamic IP addresses are automatically assigned.
Explanation: Dynamic IP addresses are assigned by a network’s DHCP server, and can change over time, unlike static IPs, which remain the same.
Q3. What is the difference between half-duplex mode and full-duplex mode?
Correct Answer: Half-duplex mode can only send or receive while full-duplex mode can do both
Explanation: In half-duplex mode, communication can happen in only one direction at a time, whereas full-duplex allows for simultaneous sending and receiving of data.
Q4. What is a de-facto standard?
Correct Answer: A networking standard that results from marketplace domination or practice.
Explanation: A de-facto standard is not established by an official body but becomes widely adopted due to popularity or usage.
Q5. What always has an associated protocol and application?
Correct Answer: A port
Explanation: Ports are used to direct network traffic to the correct application on a device, and each port corresponds to a specific protocol.
Q6. Which organization established the world wide web (www) standard?
Correct Answer: The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C)
Explanation: W3C is responsible for defining the standards for the web to ensure long-term growth for the web.
Q7. What is the difference between a repeater and a wireless access point (WAP)?
Correct Answer: A repeater extends wireless signals, a WAP acts as a central wireless connection point.
Explanation: A WAP allows multiple devices to connect to a network wirelessly, whereas a repeater simply extends the range of a signal.
Q8. What does a WANET do?
Correct Answer: It uses long-range radio techniques to create long-distance network access.
Explanation: WANET (Wide Area Network Extension Technology) uses wireless technologies to extend the range of networks over large areas.
Q9. How many network protocols are there?
Correct Answer: Hundreds
Explanation: There are hundreds of different network protocols used for various purposes, from routing to data transfer and security.
Q10. What does the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol do?
Correct Answer: Remotely controls another device
Explanation: SSH allows secure remote access to another device, often used for server management.
Sources: Introduction to Networking and Storage
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